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Old 04-25-2008, 12:07 PM   #71
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Is a literal reading of an ancient text sufficient to understand the content of the text? Wouldn't you need to know substantially more about the cultural traditions of the area immediately prior to the writing, if you could established when the text was written?
I do not see why a literal reading of the gospels is not sufficient to understand their content. I don’t think I see your argument. Can you give an example from the gospels where you don’t think it is possible to understand the text without more information about culture or traditions of the time?
Can you understand what the problem of the gospel notion of messiah (christ) is without knowing the cultural background to the notion of "messiah"? (The Jewish messiah was a military figure who would liberate the Jews and bring on a realm in which they would be the leaders and he would rule the world according to traditions that were already in development, as seen for example in the Psalms of Solomon -- ask for refs if needed.)

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The intention of the gospel writers seems to have been to provide a record of the life of a man called Jesus, the things he did and the things that happened to Him.
If that were true, why did two gospel cannibalize Mk as a literary source then modify it according to the redactors' needs?

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Luke says, “Inasmuch as many have taken in hand to set in order a narrative of those things which have been fulfilled among us…it seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first, to write…an orderly account…that you may know the certainty of those things in which you were instructed.” John says, “And truly Jesus did many other signs in the presence of His disciples, which are not written in this book; but these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in His name.” The intent of the gospel writers seems very simple and straightforward.
And Lucian calls his fantasy about a trip to the moon "A True Story". Authors need to be analysed for what they are doing. Are there lessons constructed in the gospels by the writers for their communities? Do we see the biases of the writers? Is Lk trying to be a Greek style history? Is Mt a Jewish style history? What do the differences entail regarding reality? Do both represent a reality when they give Jesus different words or deeds? Are we looking at history at all? If so, how would you know?

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I was thinking of Clement and then Ignatius in the second century. Granted, it is not much, but it does establish an ordered religious system based on worship of Christ at that time.
But what are they able to tell you about a real Jesus?

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I don’t recall the specific details. However, the fragment is regarded as a copy putting the original earlier than 120 CE.
The dating of P52 is subject to debate. One of my problems with the date is that it is a codex rather than a scroll and codices were only being experimented with in Rome at the end of the 1st c., so such an early codex of John seems highly suspect. For an analysis of the dating based on handwriting, read the Wiki entry on the John Rylands Papyrus P52.


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True. What we know of Papias is through references to him in the writings of others. However, those references are significant and give us insights that are otherwise missing...
(So you believe, though believing doesn't make it so.)

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...One record says that John dictated his gospel to Papias who then wrote it down. We read of Papias writing that Mark was Peter’s interpreter and wrote a gospel about the things he heard although I think there is ongoing debate about this.
Yes, we've debated Papias here numerous times.

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What we read about Papias and the gospels is consistent with what we have been led to believe about the gospels.
What we read about Papias is about Papias and his supposed knowledge. It gives us nothing consistent with the gospels. It is merely ancillary information drawn into the non-biblical side of christian tradition.

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Matthew seems to be an obvious expansion of Mark by an apostle who had intimate knowledge of the things about which Mark wrote.
Why? because he uses another written source available to the writer of Lk? What we see is a literary effort. And what you are doing is reading in some of the non-gospel material into your image of the writer of Mt.

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Luke seems to have used Mark but by his own testimony, sought out other sources and wrote of things not recorded by Mark. The conclusion is that all three gospels were written about the same period of time and that this would have been in the first century.
Certainly not. Both Lk and Mt were written far enough after Mk to need to change it significantly. Both add theologically motivated material, manipulate information. Do you think the writer of Mt actually saw Jesus ride on two animals in the triumphant entry? Do you think that the writer corrected the words that Jesus cited from Ps 22 during the crucifixion because he heard them better or did he simply make it closer to the Psalm? Did Jesus heal one man at Jericho as per Mk 10:46ff or two as Mt indicates? Did Jesus talk about the kingdom of god or the kingdom of heaven? These changes do not inspire one with the notion of an eyewitness.

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They naturally convey eyewitness accounts of the events surrounding the life of Jesus.
There's nothing natural about your claim. An analysis of the changes in the gospels gives no sign of improvement towards reality but towards more theological ends.

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Alternative corroborating sources would be nice to have but the absence of these sources does not argue for or against the veracity of the gospels. We might compare the gospels to Josephus as to Jewish life in the early first century and see if they are consistent.
Without any corroboration we have no history. (And Josephus is no help with the central material in the gospels, despite his texts being augmented in antiquity once by scribal clarification and once by shamefaced insertion, both by christian scribes.)

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What could we make of Tacitus's account of the actions of Nero if we didn't have external materials to compare it with (eg coins, monuments, sculpture, inscriptions and much more from the specific period)? The value of Tacitus would be untestable on the subject and we cannot simply take Tacitus's word for it. The same goes with any report. The central material needs verification.

People can get things wrong. For example Tertullian believed that a certain Ebion was the founder of the Ebionite christian movement which was aberrant so Tertullian wrote against him. However, Tertullian was wrong: there was no Ebion. Yet the figure of Ebion evolved further from the time of Tertullian to that of Epiphanius from whom we learn that Ebion's hometown was Choseba -- not bad for someone who didn't exist!

We cannot simply take veracity for granted: it must be demonstrated. Luke may provide very specific information (well not that much really), but nothing from the central figures of his story that can be verified. So let me reiterate my original statement:
I would like to hear any evidence you have which will change the status of the gospels, so that they could be conceived of as we would classical sources such as Tacitus whose works are full of verifiable information, sources which offer problems of their own, but which leave know doubt that they contain the food for history.
We would have a lot of evidence if you accepted the historical writings collected and published as the NT.
You must start with known quantities. You cannot assume things. You can't tell me how you know that the gospels contain historical information rather than appear to be relatively consistent stories.

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However, you seem to deny the veracity of all these writings together with the writings, or references, to others who wrote following the apostolic period.
Until they can be shown somehow to contain historical material in its main accounts, they cannot be accepted as veracious. When a witness is brought into court, they must first be credentialed before they are heard.

Do you accept the Infancy Gospel of Thomas or the Protoevangelium of James (both containing information about the early life of Jesus)? What about Paul's Letter to the Laodoceans? Or Paul's Letters to Seneca?

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I suspect that only Tacitus, since you reference it, is able to meet your requirements for accepting the veracity of historical writings. All others you would likely reject as you do the NT writings.
We have enough verified in the work of Tacitus to be able to carry out historical research into his narrative, his interests, his biases, and his shaping of his information. The gospel writers are anonymous and their writings are opaque to us as to their history and context.


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Old 04-25-2008, 01:14 PM   #72
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Originally Posted by Andrew Criddle
It has been claimed in this forum that
a/ much of the material in the Gospel narratives is derived from the
OT/Hebrew Bible

IMHO the degree to which the OT was used as a basis for the Gospel stories is substantially less than many on this forum belief.
Andrew Criddle
I do not know on what basis you made such a claim, your honest opinion is extremely vague. What really is the "degree" to which the OT was used and is it substantially less than what is written by the authors of the Gospels?
  • All the so-called prophecies about the coming of Jesus are from the OT.
  • The birth of Jesus is from the OT.
  • The genealogy of the so-called father of Jesus is from the OT.
  • The fleeing of Jesus to Egypt is from the OT.
  • The killing of the innocent is fulfilled prophecy from the OT.
  • John the Baptist is fulfilled prophecy from the OT.
  • The lenght of time Jesus fasted is from the OT.
  • The sayings of Jesus are based on the OT.
  • The trial and crucifixion are based on the OT.
  • His resurrection is based on the OT.

Is this degree to which the OT was used substantially less than your honest opinion?
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Old 04-25-2008, 05:04 PM   #73
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[[*] The sayings of Jesus are based on the OT.
All of them? If so, could you demonstrate this please?

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Old 04-25-2008, 11:46 PM   #74
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  • All the so-called prophecies about the coming of Jesus are from the OT.
  • The birth of Jesus is from the OT.
  • The genealogy of the so-called father of Jesus is from the OT.
  • The fleeing of Jesus to Egypt is from the OT.
  • The killing of the innocent is fulfilled prophecy from the OT.
  • John the Baptist is fulfilled prophecy from the OT.
  • The lenght of time Jesus fasted is from the OT.
  • The sayings of Jesus are based on the OT.
  • The trial and crucifixion are based on the OT.
  • His resurrection is based on the OT.

Is this degree to which the OT was used substantially less than your honest opinion?
The prophecies quoted in the NT from the OT are from the OT.
The birth stories are very heavily influenced by the OT.
The genealogy is partly from the OT.
The flight into Egypt and killing of the innocents are from the OT.
The acount of the career of John the Baptist is IMO mostly history/legend despite the OT allusions.
The reference to 40 days (as distinct from say over a month) fasting is from the OT.
The sayings of Jesus draw heavily upon the OT but also contain much original material some of which critiques the OT and/or traditional interpretations thereof.
IMO the core of the narrative about the trial crucifixion and empty tomb (say the material on which all four gospels agree) is not heavily based on the OT, although much of the material found in one Gospel only may be derived from the OT.
The resurrection appearances do not seem based on the OT.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 04-26-2008, 01:24 AM   #75
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[*] The birth of Jesus is from the OT.[*] The genealogy of the so-called father of Jesus is from the OT.[*] The fleeing of Jesus to Egypt is from the OT.[*] The killing of the innocent is fulfilled prophecy from the OT.[*] John the Baptist is fulfilled prophecy from the OT.[*] The lenght of time Jesus fasted is from the OT.[*] The sayings of Jesus are based on the OT.[*] The trial and crucifixion are based on the OT.[*] His resurrection is based on the OT.[/LIST]
The resurrection appearances do not seem based on the OT.
Hi

Jesus was a Jew and a follower of Moses; so his drawing so much from the OT is understandable. The only thing which is most different from the OT is his literal or physical resurrection. Jesus did not die a cursed death on Cross; so his resurrection from the dead is mythical.

Thanks
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Old 04-26-2008, 06:51 AM   #76
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We know that there may well have been other factors involved in the inclusion of healings of a deaf and a blind person in parallel. Most things we do are overdetermined. But what has citing the fact that

You will note that I said,
How can you otherwise imagine the simplest way for the texts to have gained this form of parallel sequences? Ordering and jiggling point to construction from existing fragments rather than creation.
You've not responded to this.

spin
I normally agree with you on things spin, but you're way off the "mark" here. First of all, I did address exactly what you are talking about in the post that you quote, you just chose to skip that part. I've already provided the fuller explanation in this thread:

http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showpos...9&postcount=38

This whole issue is addressed much more fully in my article: http://www.rationalrevolution.net/ar...ospel_mark.htm

Several things to point out with the feeding scenes specifically.

#1) We can see from an examination of the Gospel of Mark that many literary references are made back to the the Hebrew scriptures.

#2) We see in the Gospel of Mark a series of references made to the Elijah/Elisha narratives in 1 Kings and 2 Kings.

#3) We see that the apparent references to the Elijah/Elisha narratives fall neatly into a section of the Gospel and follows distinct patterns. The Elijah/Elisha narrative parallels are used within the first third of the Markan narrative where the characters are being identified and constructed. The actions that Jesus takes, the miracles that he performs, are patterned on the miracles of Elisha.

#4) The feeding scenes are themselves apparently based on the miracles of Elisha. The feeding scenes in Mark are almost word for word copies of the feeding scene in 2 Kings.

#5) The two feeding scenes in Mark are set within a larger "doublet". That "doublet" (for lack of a better word) ends in Mark 8 with a teaching scenes that summarizes the lessons of the "doublet". This is Mark 8:14-21, which specifically addresses the Pharisees and the feeding scenes.

This is all indicative of quite a complex and multi-layered constructed symbolic narrative that was carefully crafted by the author, it is not at all indicative of someone simply compiling various random tales that have been handed down to him.

If we agree that the feeding scenes are based on the Elisha feeding scene in 2 Kings, then are you claiming that the "sources" which the author of Mark used were also both based on 2 Kings? Are you claiming that the author of Mark took two sources and then reinterpreted them int the light of two Kings? Are you claiming that all of the Elijah/Elisha parallels came from "other sources"?

How do you explain Mark 8:19-21?

Quote:
Mark 8:
19 When I broke the five loaves for the five thousand, how many baskets full of broken pieces did you collect?' They said to him, 'Twelve.' 20 'And the seven for the four thousand, how many baskets full of broken pieces did you collect?' And they said to him, 'Seven.' 21 Then he said to them, 'Do you not yet understand?'
Here all of the numbers are repeated again, specifically calling out 12 and 7. (In my estimation 12 = Israel, 7 = Rome)

Why would this scene be included if the two feeding scenes were just the passing on of two different traditions?

Why would the author even bother with the two feeding scenes when in reality there only real different between them is the numbers?

Very clearly is appears to me that the author was engaging in symbolic math here, he wasn't repeating these two things because one guy told him one set of numbers and someone else told him a different set.

According to the "two source" theory the numbers here are meaningless, totally unimportant, they just happen to be two different sets of numbers that cropped up in two different threads of the traditions.

My explanation of these two feedings scenes is much more complex than that, and much more holistic, dealing with the narrative elements regarding Jews and Gentiles that separate the two scenes.

My view of it is that in the one scene he is feeding the people of Israel, in the other scene he is feeding the Gentiles. The Jews are fed first, then the Gentiles, which reflects the passage that separates these two scenes where Jess says that the Jews are to be fed first, then the Gentiles.

[First feeding scene takes place on Jesus' hometown's side of the lake]

Quote:
Mark 6:
34 As he went ashore, he saw a great crowd; and he had compassion for them, because they were like sheep without a shepherd; and he began to teach them many things. 35 When it grew late, his disciples came to him and said, 'This is a deserted place, and the hour is now very late; 36 send them away so that they may go into the surrounding country and villages and buy something for themselves to eat.' 37 But he answered them, 'You give them something to eat.' They said to him, 'Are we to go and buy two hundred denarii worth of bread, and give it to them to eat?' 38 And he said to them, 'How many loaves have you? Go and see.' When they had found out, they said, 'Five, and two fish.' 39 Then he ordered them to get all the people to sit down in groups on the green grass. 40 So they sat down in groups of hundreds and of fifties. 41 Taking the five loaves and the two fish, he looked up to heaven, and blessed and broke the loaves, and gave them to his disciples to set before the people; and he divided the two fish among them all. 42 And all ate and were filled; 43 and they took up twelve baskets full of broken pieces and of the fish. 44 Those who had eaten the loaves numbered five thousand men.
Quote:
Mark 7:
24 From there he set out and went away to the region of Tyre. He entered a house and did not want anyone to know he was there. Yet he could not escape notice, 25 but a woman whose little daughter had an unclean spirit immediately heard about him, and she came and bowed down at his feet. 26 Now the woman was a Gentile, of Syrophoenician origin. She begged him to cast the demon out of her daughter. 27 He said to her, 'Let the children be fed first, for it is not fair to take the children's food and throw it to the dogs.' 28 But she answered him, 'Sir, even the dogs under the table eat the children's crumbs.' 29 Then he said to her, 'For saying that, you may go—the demon has left your daughter.' 30 So she went home, found the child lying on the bed, and the demon gone.
[Second feeding scene takes place on the other side of the lake]

Quote:
Mark 8:
1 In those days when there was again a great crowd without anything to eat, he called his disciples and said to them, 2 'I have compassion for the crowd, because they have been with me now for three days and have nothing to eat. 3 If I send them away hungry to their homes, they will faint on the way—and some of them have come from a great distance.' 4 His disciples replied, 'How can one feed these people with bread here in the desert?' 5 He asked them, 'How many loaves do you have?' They said, 'Seven.' 6 Then he ordered the crowd to sit down on the ground; and he took the seven loaves, and after giving thanks he broke them and gave them to his disciples to distribute; and they distributed them to the crowd. 7 They had also a few small fish; and after blessing them, he ordered that these too should be distributed. 8 They ate and were filled; and they took up the broken pieces left over, seven baskets full. 9 Now there were about four thousand people. And he sent them away. 10 And immediately he got into the boat with his disciples and went to the district of Dalmanutha.
This does not at all look like the simple compiling of two sources, it looks like a very intentionally crafted symbolic narrative, which would had to have been developed by the mind of a single narrative creator.
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Old 04-26-2008, 07:25 AM   #77
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The resurrection appearances do not seem based on the OT.

Andrew Criddle
I said that the resurrection itself, not the resurrection appearances, is based on the OT. The authors just had to fabricated stories about the resurrection appearances.

Matthew 12.40
Quote:
For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
Jonah 1.17
Quote:
Now the Lord had prepared a great fish to swallow up Jonah. And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights.
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Old 04-26-2008, 07:49 AM   #78
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
I said that the resurrection itself, not the resurrection appearances, is based on the OT. The authors just had to fabricated stories about the resurrection appearances.

Matthew 12.40
Quote:
For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
Jonah 1.17
Quote:
Now the Lord had prepared a great fish to swallow up Jonah. And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights.
This linkage of Jonah in the whale and Jesus in the tomb is found only in Mathew and appears late. Probably later than the claims about the resurrection. Hence it is unlikely that the resurrection claims were originally based on Jonah. (It is in any case unlikely, in the absence of a belief in the resurrection, that anyone would invent such a belief purely on the basis of Jonah.)

Andrew Criddle
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Old 04-26-2008, 09:14 AM   #79
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle View Post
It has been claimed in this forum that
a/ much of the material in the Gospel narratives is derived from the
OT/Hebrew Bible
b/ that hence these narratives were not intended to be taken as history but were meant as fictions/parables/allegoris.

IMHO the degree to which the OT was used as a basis for the Gospel stories is substantially less than many on this forum belief. However this thread is intended to challenge b/ the idea that if a Gospel writer consciously based part of his story on the OT then he did not believe that things had literally happened the way he described them.

I think this is probably wrong. It is common among consrvative Christians today to use OT material when retelling the Gospel stories, eg to claim on the basis of Isaiah 50:6 that the roughing up of Jesus at his trial extended to pulling out hairs from his beard. The claim is that we know on the basis of Isaiah that this really happened although the Gospels do not explicitly say so.

In the same way it seems likely to me that 'Matthew' had no other source than the OT for his claim that the payment to Judas was 30 pieces of silver but he believed on the evidence of prophecy that this is how much it was.

To clarify, this is not an argument for the historical accuracy of the Gospels but an argument for their historical intention. Even if the ways in which the writers composed their accounts seem strange to us they may still have been trying to tell it as it really happened.
Andrew Criddle
JW:
A number of problems here:

1) I have Faith that most Skeptics here have no idea to what extent "Mark" used the Jewish Bible and Paul OutSourcing Paul, A Contract Labor of Love Another's(Writings). Paul as Markan Source as sources.

2) There is probably a significant difference in intent between the original author "Mark" and the Editors "Matthew"/"Luke"/"John".

3) Most of "Mark" is Impossible so it is a fact that "Mark" lacked historical witness for most of his Gospel. Therefore "Mark" probably knew that most of his Gospel was not historical. Add to this the likely sources above, the classic Greek Tragedy style and anti-biography attitude and it is something more than probable that "Mark" knew what he wrote was not primarily hsitory.

4) You need to step back a level with a claim of historical intent. "Mark" almost certainly knew he was not writing history but it is possible that he wanted his audience to think he was. "Mark" does have a primary theme that if you believe it's true, than it really is true. Personally though I think the extreme level of Contrivance makes it likely that "Mark" thought his audience would recognize the contrivance.

5) The failure of Christianity to identify the author suggests that there never was anyone who claimed to have written "Mark" and claimed that it was historical. It than had to be attributed, after the fact, to someone who could not have written it.



Joseph

EDITOR, n.
A person who combines the judicial functions of Minos, Rhadamanthus and Aeacus, but is placable with an obolus; a severely virtuous censor, but so charitable withal that he tolerates the virtues of others and the vices of himself; who flings about him the splintering lightning and sturdy thunders of admonition till he resembles a bunch of firecrackers petulantly uttering his mind at the tail of a dog; then straightway murmurs a mild, melodious lay, soft as the cooing of a donkey intoning its prayer to the evening star. Master of mysteries and lord of law, high-pinnacled upon the throne of thought, his face suffused with the dim splendors of the Transfiguration, his legs intertwisted and his tongue a-cheek, the editor spills his will along the paper and cuts it off in lengths to suit. And at intervals from behind the veil of the temple is heard the voice of the foreman demanding three inches of wit and six lines of religious meditation, or bidding him turn off the wisdom and whack up some pathos.

OutSourcing Paul, A Contract Labor of Love Another's(Writings). Paul as Markan Source
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Old 04-26-2008, 09:25 AM   #80
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I said that the resurrection itself, not the resurrection appearances, is based on the OT. The authors just had to fabricated stories about the resurrection appearances.

Matthew 12.40

Jonah 1.17
This linkage of Jonah in the whale and Jesus in the tomb is found only in Mathew and appears late. Probably later than the claims about the resurrection. Hence it is unlikely that the resurrection claims were originally based on Jonah. (It is in any case unlikely, in the absence of a belief in the resurrection, that anyone would invent such a belief purely on the basis of Jonah.)

Andrew Criddle
Ok, but what then did the author of 1 Cr 15:4 have in mind saying that Christ was raised on the third day "in accordance with the scriptures" ?

That passage is very early, isn't it Andrew ?

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