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Old 03-25-2006, 02:46 PM   #101
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Originally Posted by jjramsey
This applies to those who make the historical Jesus out to be a sage or someone speaking out for social change, but it doesn't fit well with those who have come to the conclusion that Jesus was an apocalyptic prophet, a figure that can be regarded as a religious loon.
Religious loon? Just because he thought and preached that God's reign was imminent, within the lifetime of those in audience? In the context of 1st century Palestine, with two revolts against the Romans in the offing, how is an apocalyptic worldview loony? From our context, it is loony. In the first century, it wasn't. And being wrong doesn't make one a loon — though I suspect that the "being wrong" is part of why the Jesus Seminar didn't buy Jesus as an apocalypticist.

We also do not know that Jesus' apocalyptic view included anything like the disasters later laid out in Revelation, which, of course, is loony.
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Old 03-25-2006, 03:08 PM   #102
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Originally Posted by Toto
In context, the passage reads from here:

Interesting.
Who are the "they"? If they are in anyway conected to things Pauline, might Josephus not just be using their terminology here? In which case this passage does not show that kata sarka means anything else than the meaning "they" gave it.
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Old 03-25-2006, 03:43 PM   #103
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Apocalpytic imagery is one dimension of Christ's rhetoric. To call him an apocalyptic prophet is to yet again mistake his tropes for his essential meaning.
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Old 03-25-2006, 03:46 PM   #104
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Of course it was. It would be virtually impossible to do such an act [temple ruckus, GPS] and not be killed on site. That much is a given. But I thought we're talking about the historical Jesus, and not the embellished version given by the gospellers. I call strawman.
But isn't that the problem this debate keeps running into? Christianity is based on the embellished version. The reason the historicity of Jesus is so interesting is Christianity. And that means the interesting candidate for historicity is Christianity's Jesus, not some diminished version that fits the available evidence. So you may call straw man, but I call shifting of the goal posts.


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Moreover, Doherty is taking the gospels at face, a big no-no.
When it comes to a HJ, cherry-picking the gospels to manufacture an HJ that works is the no-no.

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When you compare the gospel accounts to Paul's letters, of course you're going to get discrepancies, silences, etc... It would be wise to remember that the gospels came after Paul. Go figure.
That's begging the question (given the above). The whole idea is that according to Christianity Paul's Jesus is the same as the gospel Jesus. And both Paul and the gospels are supposed to be accurate versions. At the very least we would expect, given the enormous importance (according to the Christians) of the subject, that Paul and the gospels would be a much closer match. That, I think is what Doherety is after. And showing that this isn't so is a legitimate form of casting doubt on the Christian claims.

So here are some points I think the debate should address:

1) Does everyone (except apologists) agree that the gospel Jesus is not historical?

2) Given this, what is the maximal Jesus supported by the Gospel+Acts evidence? Is this something like what the Jesus Seminar came up with?

3) Can we rhyme what we find in 2) with what we find in Paul?

To get a little ahead of the conclusions, I suspect the answer to 1) is by and large: yes. Let's assume that the answer to 2) is at best something like a cult leader, an itinerant priest, something along those lines (the answer may be MJ, but let's assume HJ for the moment). I then suspect that the answer for 3) is: no, we cannot rhyme the gospel HJ with what we find in Paul. If so, we end up with at least two HJ's, assuming we can derive an HJ from Paul. That would put an end to the HJ, we now have a collection of at least two.

--------------
Gerard Stafleu
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Old 03-25-2006, 03:58 PM   #105
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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Jewish War, 2.155?
Sorry, I was in a hurry and, not thinking, used the BibleWorks versification.

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Wars, II, VIII, 11 is theosophical explanation. It is talking about the nature of mortal beings. Christ was not a mortal being. It would be incorrect to expect a Christological passage to be based on the same motif as that of a mortal.
Christ was a mortal being, unless you assume a priori that he's not. Kata sarka is evidence of his mortality, and likewise is "born of a woman, under the Law." Paul made it very clear that Jesus died - thus mortal.

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Pauline Christology is not based on the interpretation of kata sarka alone. You have to factor in what Paul says elsewhere regarding the nature of Christ. And we know that Paul does not place Christ anywhere on earth to begin with.
Born of a woman, under the Law? What, does the Law extend to the heavens too?

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So how can we expect him to believe Christ was an earthly mortal? This is a typical instance of MJ opponents importing gospel suppositions into an interpretation of Paul.
The Gospel is not needed. Not only is Jesus of the flesh (kata sarka), born of a woman (genomenon ek gunaikos), born under the Law (genomenon upo nomon), but also visited, post resurrection, James, Cephas, John, the Twelve, and 500 people. Why 500 people? Why would a spirit need to see 500 people? It makes far more sense as an apologetic tactic of Paul having Jesus witnessed by 500 people to make his story more credible. There's no reason why a resurrected spirit would need to see 500 people.

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We know Marcion did not believe Christ to have been on earth. Considering Paul's gnostic leanings, we are justified to reason that his beliefs on Jesus were not fundamentally based on a flesh and blood man.
First of all, not all Gnostics believed that Jesus was not also human. Gnosticism, like the rest of Christianity, is a broad category. Marcion was only a type of Gnostic. Other Gnostics, like perhaps they who used the Gospel of Thomas, or the various Infancy Gospels, most likely believed in a real flesh and blood leader. However, like Paul, that he lived is secondary. His teachings, or for Paul that he rose from the dead, far outweigh his mortal life.

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Please show us how so.

I figure that you are mistaken.
This should be addressed elsewhere. The arguments look like no arguments to me. I don't see how any of them are applicable to this discussion. If you would like to show how any of them are relevant, go for it. But I'm not going to respond to someone merely pointing to a link. Bring the arguments here and show how they're relevant.

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Those that witnessed his miracle feats. Those that were allegedly whipped out of the temple or those that witnessed the whipping victims. Those that witnessed his dramatic entry into Jerusalem on the back of a colt etc etc.
Once again, we're taking the gospels at face value. How do you know that he had made the dramatic entry into Jerusalem, or that he did indeed perform miracles? Where does Paul say that Jesus performed miracles?

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Prophecies have not been known to be a source of historical information. He could have asked eyewitnesses what Jesus taught for example, regarding flesh and the inheritance of the Kingdom of God.
But Paul himself says that his teachings do not come from man, as those of the Pillars do. His teachings are a revelation from Jesus himself. To him, what Jesus said and did while alive is secondary to Paul. What's far more important is that he died and was risen.

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This would only be relevant if Paul in fact, did rationalize what Jesus did with the OT.
?

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Oh, other than the gospels, from where can I learn more about this historical Jesus that you mention?
Paul, and via the gospels (if you know how to look), earliest Christian traditions should also provide some enlightenment.

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You have a reliable methodology that I can use to separate the embellishments from the facts?
Please present it here.
This thread is not the place for my methodology. If you want, you can browse my blog where I explain much.

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Have you read Michael's work?
Indeed I have. I read it as soon as he posted it here. I read it before he even had his website up. I am familiar with Michael's work, why?

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Where does he argue that coincidence alone is used to rule out historicity?
Is an altered narrative applicable as a reliable historical document?
How do you separate what has been altered from what has not been altered?
Whenever Mark happens to present his narrative in a manner that imitates Old Testamental themes, Michael takes it as Mark creating a narrative from the OT. This actually is rather valid, but only as a rule of thumb.

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You claim that you are an atheist. An atheist does not believe in the supernatural. The supernatural Jesus (per Luke Timothy Johnson) is mutually exclusive with the natural, historical Jesus.
Almost all of these conservative scholars (e.g.Stevan Davies and Sanders) believe that Jesus was a man who was capable of supernatural feats.
As an atheist, what method do you use to retain the natural from the supernatural? Your own bias?
I'm not understanding the claim here. I've never said that Jesus was capable of "supernatural feats". I was pointing out that half (a number I pulled out of my ass, yes) of the HJ's on the list overlapped with the other half. I was showing that it is misleading to think that all those HJs you mentioned were totally different from the each and every one of the others. They were not, in fact. The list, then, is convulated and misleading, packed to make others think that there is no common ground. It has nothing to do with my atheism or that some of the scholars were Christians.

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List three historical personages that have such a fluid nature.
King Arthur, Achilles, Confucius.

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Yes. And we are now waiting for your methodology.
Read my blog for some introductory material.

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We now await to see the methodology that you employed to reach this conclusion.
Actually, it's simpler than that. The methodology for figuring out that there must be an HJ is that there is no tenable theory which accounts for Jesus' ahistoricity. Doherty is probably the only one who has actually a full theory which is based on evidence, yet his is still unconvincing.

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A faulty analogy does not help your case. An account that has been shown to be fictionalized cannot be used as a historical source.
If you are using sources other than the gospels to derive the life of a historical Jesus, please feel free to list them.
You cannot claim that "The gospels read as ancient myth" and then turn around and use them as evidence that a HJ existed.
Do you really think that there's no history in either Beowulf or the Iliad? None?

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It is like using a gun that has been shown to have been planted by the Police to argue that a gun was used in a murder case.
You cannot eat your cake and have it.
Speaking of faulty analogies...

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You cannot validly claim you are an atheist and yet lump together ideologically with religious people who are engaging in theology and purport to present them as critical scholars.
We have had people in the past who have claimed to be atheists here and upon investigation, have been exposed as frauds.
I hope that is not the case with you because the smell of fish wherever you post assails my olfactory system to a significant degree.
Oh yes, when you can't deal with the evidence, resort to ad hom attacks. Way to go! I've been here a lot longer than I've been engaged in the HJ quest. I'm a freaking mod of EoG and PA&SA. Do you seriously question my atheism? More to the point, does it even matter?

Seeing your relentless ad hominem attacks, I don't think I should argue with you any further.

Quote:
"Verbal about Carrier" is a meaningless statement that does nothing to challenge what I have stated regarding what Gibson did.
Go back and reread the thread.

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Old 03-25-2006, 04:15 PM   #106
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Quote:
Originally Posted by gstafleu
But isn't that the problem this debate keeps running into? Christianity is based on the embellished version. The reason the historicity of Jesus is so interesting is Christianity. And that means the interesting candidate for historicity is Christianity's Jesus, not some diminished version that fits the available evidence. So you may call straw man, but I call shifting of the goal posts.
It would only be a problem for a Christian. As for Jesus, my interests in this "quest" is roughly the same as my interest in the historicity of any other dubious character from history. It seems aptly applied to Jesus merely because of my backgroud - Latin and Greek, and learning Hebrew and Coptic. Perhaps when I get a good grasp of Chinese, I can devote the time to Kong Fu Zi, Lao Zi, Zhuang Zi, Sun Zi, Sun Ping, etc...

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When it comes to a HJ, cherry-picking the gospels to manufacture an HJ that works is the no-no.
You're right, but that's not being done here. Another blatant strawman.

That's begging the question (given the above). The whole idea is that according to Christianity Paul's Jesus is the same as the gospel Jesus. And both Paul and the gospels are supposed to be accurate versions. At the very least we would expect, given the enormous importance (according to the Christians) of the subject, that Paul and the gospels would be a much closer match. That, I think is what Doherety is after. And showing that this isn't so is a legitimate form of casting doubt on the Christian claims.[/quote]
But who gives a flying fuck what Christians think? The standard Christian claims are laughable in the academic world, and very few respected scholars still hold on to them, and when they do, there's usually controversy surrounding those prejudices. When you learn that not everyone is a Christian, then you can come back and join in the discussion. Until then, keep your anti-Christian rants and raves out of academia.

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1) Does everyone (except apologists) agree that the gospel Jesus is not historical?
I don't know. I can only speak for myself. And no, the gospel Jesus is not historical.

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2) Given this, what is the maximal Jesus supported by the Gospel+Acts evidence? Is this something like what the Jesus Seminar came up with?
I never found the Jesus Seminar too enthrilling. For me, it is very little. We don't know much about the HJ, and we never will. But I don't see that as a problem.

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3) Can we rhyme what we find in 2) with what we find in Paul?
No. Paul's an attestation to the fact that Jesus lived, not what he was like.

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To get a little ahead of the conclusions, I suspect the answer to 1) is by and large: yes. Let's assume that the answer to 2) is at best something like a cult leader, an itinerant priest, something along those lines (the answer may be MJ, but let's assume HJ for the moment). I then suspect that the answer for 3) is: no, we cannot rhyme the gospel HJ with what we find in Paul. If so, we end up with at least two HJ's, assuming we can derive an HJ from Paul. That would put an end to the HJ, we now have a collection of at least two.
Faulty conclusion. Paul's Jesus does not conflict with the gospel Jesus stripped down to what we can know about him. In fact, Paul's Jesus is entirely consistent with virtually any scholar's ideas on the gospel Jesus. Paul does not give a version of Jesus, he gives an attestation to his existence.

It's like saying that I own a computer. There's no way that statement will ever tell you which computer I have. Paul says there was a Jesus - the gospels try to describe him.
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Old 03-25-2006, 04:48 PM   #107
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Quote:
Originally Posted by gstafleu
Who are the "they"? If they are in anyway conected to things Pauline, might Josephus not just be using their terminology here? In which case this passage does not show that kata sarka means anything else than the meaning "they" gave it.
"They" are the Essenes. The thing is that the meaning they gave it implied that kata sarka was in reference to souls being incarnate in human bodies, so indeed, the phrase can be used in reference to "earthly incarnation." Now the earthly incarnation that Paul had in mind is somewhat different; unlike the souls of the Essenes, the spirit of Christ was supposed to be preexistent (like Moses). Nonetheless, both Josephus and Paul are talking of an earthly incarnation.

Quote:
Originally Posted by mens sana
Quote:
Originally Posted by jjramsey
This applies to those who make the historical Jesus out to be a sage or someone speaking out for social change, but it doesn't fit well with those who have come to the conclusion that Jesus was an apocalyptic prophet, a figure that can be regarded as a religious loon.
In the context of 1st century Palestine, with two revolts against the Romans in the offing, how is an apocalyptic worldview loony? From our context, it is loony. In the first century, it wasn't.
Fair point. However, what I was trying to get at is while one could accuse scholars who come up with a Jesus-as-a-moral-sage of trying to come up with a Jesus that flatters modern sensibilities, one could hardly make the same accusation to scholars who come up with an apocalpytic Jesus. Moderns can all too easily see such a Jesus as a "religious loon."
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Old 03-25-2006, 04:55 PM   #108
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Can someone provide a bulleted list of reasons to conclude that there was an HJ?
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Old 03-25-2006, 09:45 PM   #109
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Knife
Can someone provide a bulleted list of reasons to conclude that there was an HJ?
  • "But when the time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under law" Galations 4:4
  • "Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh" Romans 1:3

There you have it.
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Old 03-26-2006, 06:35 AM   #110
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
That seems to be the prevailing assumption, but I have seen no evidence supporting it.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
The burden would actually be on you to show it.
Excuse me? Since when do I have to justify not believing what others assume?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Otherwise we must assume they're complete upon being written.
I'm sure that whoever produced the extant copies were done with them whenever they stopped writing. That doesn't say anything about when the original autographs were produced or how closely they matched the originals.
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