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04-13-2005, 04:05 PM | #41 | |
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However I do regard the DSS as coming from a sectarian community and I think the strongest evidence is the calendar. I have given my reasons why I do not think it likely that the Temple of Jerusalem continued to use a 364 day year until after the Roman occupation. eg that the moon appears to be mentioned as providing a sign for feast days in Ben Sira, and that a period of Roman influence is not a plausible time to introduce a lunar calendar. I have also tried to show that such a calendar appears to have been in use before 100 BCE among Jews beyond the area of Seleucid control. You IIUC regard the lunar calendar for festivals in the 2nd century BCE as something only acceptable to hard-core supporters of the process of hellenization under the Seleucids. (Despite evidence from Jubilees and CD at least suggesting that the use of a 354 day calendar was more widespread than that.) I entirely agree that this is a perfectly possible position I just don't think it particularly probable. However I'm not sure what further evidence either of us can bring to convince the other. Andrew Criddle |
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04-13-2005, 06:14 PM | #42 | ||||||
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You have avoided the evidence from Enoch's Astronomical Book which shows that it is reacting to a 360-day calendar as being four days too short. There is no discussion of an active 354-day calendar. In 167 BCE the Jews were taken to "partake of the sacrifices" on "the monthly celebration of the king's birthday", 2 Macc 6:7. The Greeks used a lunar calendar and in the east the Seleucids used the Babylonian version. The monthly celebration enforced the Babylonian calendar of 354-days, which lies behind the little horn (Antiochus IV)'s attempt t o change the sacred seasons in Dan 7:25. These are the facts that I have already put forward regarding the calendar. These along with the fact that the priestly rosters found at Qumran were strictly 364-day calendars should make obvious the fact that that calendar was the priestly choice. What you have provided is vague indications of the moon in Ben Sira and Eusebius and your assumptions about Jubilees. There is no interaction with the material I have put forward. Quote:
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Also, what evidence do you have 1) that the Romans used their solar calendar in the east and, if you found such evidence, 2) that they enforced in on the people of the east? Quote:
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Why would sectarians have their own brand of temple rosters? Why would you consider CD sectarian when 1) its community seems to reflect Israel, and 2) it is strongly temple-centred? spin |
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04-14-2005, 12:16 PM | #43 | ||||||
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Concentrating on Ezekiel; unless one is adopting a very late date for Ezekiel it provides no information about when within the Hellenistic period a lunar calendar was adopted. On an early date it would be quite compatible with the use of a lunar calendar from before the time of Ezra. It has been argued that the use of Babylonian lunar months as equivalent to Hebrew months eg in the date of the festival of Purim in Esther indicates that a lunar calendar is being used for festivals but I'm doubtful about how strong an argument this is. Quote:
However a/ This is perfectly compatible with the general adoption of such a calendar in the early 2nd century BCE. b/ Things are possibly complicated by the differences between the Ethiopic Book of Enoch and the DSS version. IIUC Milik claims that 4Q 208 is part of Enoch and that it includes a three year synchronization between a 354 day lunar year and 364 day solar year similar to that found in other calendars among the DSS. Quote:
The question is not exactly when the lunar calendar was first introduced but whether it was accepted voluntarily only by renegades like Menelaus or by a much wider group. Passing references like that in Ben Sira are IMO more useful for answering such a question than the polemic and propaganda of Jubilees. The DSS group are clearly in some sense deeply concerned about the temple. Whether their calendar describes an actual state of affairs or an ideal is much less clear. (Some DSS such as the Temple Scroll appear clearly to be describing an ideal not current reality.) Quote:
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There was IIUC no direct compulsion at least until a later period but it was presumably 'encouraged' by the new world power. Quote:
The fragments don't provide direct evidence of the situation in Judea but do IMO indicate that a lunar calendar could be used for Jewish festivals in the 2nd century BCE without pressure by Antiochus and probably against the background of a local solar calendar. Andrew Criddle |
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04-14-2005, 05:23 PM | #44 | ||||||||||||
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I haven't used Jubilees to argue anything. It was introduced by you. We have signs that Antiochus introduced calendrical dictates. When the temple was rededicated and the priests returned to Jerusalem, those dictates would obviously have gone out the window as the priests were not in Jerusalem to suffer them. Quote:
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04-15-2005, 12:15 PM | #45 | |||
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This seems to require that a lunar calendar is in use for religious festivals at this time. However, there is no explicit indication in Maccabees that the calendar as such is at issue, what is explicitly objected to is offering pagan sacrifices in honour of Antiochus not the dates upon which sacrifices are made. The account in Maccabees is compatible either with the use of a lunar calendar for some time before Antiochus or with it being introduced during his reign but not being in itself a major issue for most Torah observant Jews. Quote:
IMO the work was probably written in Jerusalem and is almost certainly evidence for Judean rather than Egyptian Jewish teaching. FWIW the passage about the moon and festivals in 43:6-8 is found in the early 1st century BCE Hebrew scroll from Masada Quote:
When using Greek month names Josephus is using the (originally lunar) Macedonian calendar. By the time Josephus was writing the Macedonian calendar (outside of Macedonia itself) had mostly been modified to a solar calendar. When he actually means a Macedonian month eg in Jewish War book 4 where the death of Vitellius is said to occur on the 3rd of Apellaios, Josephus seems to be using the solar Macedonian calendar of Tyre. Tyre is IIUC generally supposed to have adopted a solar form of the Macedonian calendar some years before the mass adoption of solar calendars in Asia Minor c 9 BCE. However when Josephus uses a Macedonian month as an equivalent of a Jewish/Babylonian month he is treating the Macedonian calendar as if it was still lunar at the time of writing. It has been suggested that he is using a standard convention of equivalences between Babylonian and Macedonian months dating back to the 1st century BCE or before, despite the fact that it is no longer valid. I don't find this very plausible but I don't have a better explanation. Andrew Criddle |
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