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05-01-2006, 12:33 PM | #111 | ||
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05-01-2006, 12:54 PM | #112 | ||
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05-01-2006, 01:36 PM | #113 | |
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05-01-2006, 02:34 PM | #114 |
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(lmh
There can be little doubt as to the significance of the word (lmh, the word translated as parQenos in Isa 7:14. Although the word is relatively infrequent in the Hebrew bible, we find that in Aramaic there is a verb (lm which means "to be strong", a meaning attested to by Jastrow with regard to rabbinical literature. We also note that in Palmyran there is a plural form of this root meaning "harlots". What we find in biblical Hebrew is a term relating to young people who have reached sexual maturity. When in Ps 68:25, we find young women (lmwt playing timbrels in public, we are clearly not dealing with virgins. Pr 30:19 talks of "the way young men gbr with young women (lmwt, with overt sexual significance. When in Job 33:25 the writer talks of restoring a man "to the days of his youth" ymy (lmy, this is not to childhood, but to the beginning of his strength, just as in Ps 89:45(6) where we find someone's days of youth ymy (lmy being shortened; the previous verse talks of having his throne cast down, so we are clearly dealing with an adult. Isaiah 7:14 The difference between the terms (lmh and btwlh is clear. (lmh deals with a girl who has reached her strength or sexual potential. This is appropriate for Isa 7:14, which is about a pregnant young women whose child will not have reached the age of discernment when the prophecy is fulfilled. The prophecy is quite definitely located in history, tied to the reign on Ahaz, so the pregnancy is not in some yet unlocated future, but already the case to give urgency to the prophecy. As the subject deals with pregnancy and birth the term (lmh is the obvious choice, whereas btwlh makes no sense in the context, even if one tries to argue that the pregnancy is not as the text indicates already the case. The virginity of the woman is not an issue, but that her child will not reach the age of discernment when the prophecy is fulfilled is, and that prophecy specifically relates to Ahaz. At the same time it's not strange that christians never actually look at the context of the verse perennially taken out of context to support the pagan notion of virginal birth, as it is clear from the passage that the child certainly goes through a period in which it is unable to discern between good and evil. Now this would imply if this were a prophecy regarding Jesus, that he would go through a period of not being able to discern between good and evil. Some god, eh? Obviously the theological drum-beating in this thread is post hoc apologetics of the puniest level. Arguing, while a certainly dated form of the Hebrew text from Qumran is clear in its use of (lmh in the text, that it actually must have been btwlh because of the choice of parQenos by a translator not known for accuracy is pathetic in its lack of substance. Trypho When Justin Martyr dealt with Trypho the Ephesian Jew (Dialogue with Trypho 67), Trypho knew what Isa 7:14 actually said, complaining that the text didn't say that it was a virgin, but a young woman, telling him he should be ashamed of making this virgin assertion as it puts Justin's Jesus on a par with Greek myths. Justin was unable to respond, but tried to persuade Trypho by other means. Trypho knew what the text actually said in circa 150 CE and rebuked Justin for his silliness. As the earliest form of the text, the Qumran Hebrew supports Trypho, it should be evident that it is correct, both because of its antiquity and the aptness of the term's significance in the context. It's just a shame that theologically biased people are prepared to go to extreme lengths of self-delusion so as not to face the simple reality of the text. Trypho was right, virgin birth is the stuff of myths. Besides that, as he said, it's simply not in the text. spin |
05-01-2006, 03:46 PM | #115 | |
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05-01-2006, 04:06 PM | #116 | |||
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If one can do the same thing with Josephus in spite of the lack of evidence and not call it apologetics, then one is being extremely hypocritical. Quote:
It is amazing how apologists cannot acknowledge that the underlying Hebrew text before the 1st century A.D. existed in different forms and instead argue to preserve the text, while in nearly every other portion of text, they argue for interpolation, harmonization, and expansion of all sorts. It is amazing how apologists ignore the fact that parthenos is an inaccurate translation of almah, a hapax legomenon in Isaiah, and also refuse to note the multiple uses of bethulah, all making almah the most unlikely (recalling that it is also rare in the HB) Hebrew word underlying the greek parthenos. See, I can use flowery rhetoric and accusations as well. How about dealing with the facts. Believe it or not, it is fine to acknowledge that a decent case is made but that you happen to disagree. Like that is going to happen with all the apologists around here though. Quote:
No one, to this point, has presented a brief, coherent, and inclusive rebuttal to the points that have been made. I could make a better case against this argument, myself, but I don't want to do that just yet, because I am enjoying watching the apologetic rhetoric fly. After all, it just can't (and I mean can't!) be even remotely possible that virgin could have been the actual word used in Isaiah 7:14! That would make Christians half-right!! Can't have that, now, can we??? Scholarship will never get anywhere with apologists like those who act as if anything ever written by a Christian was an interpolation or some such nonsense. Pooh... :notworthy: |
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05-01-2006, 04:14 PM | #117 |
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Just one other brief note. I believe that the text of Jeremiah may have been mentioned before, and how it is shorter in the LXX than in the MT. Interestingly, Hebrew manuscripts were found amongst the DSS that contain a shorter reading.
The plain and simple fact is that there very well could yet be undiscovered MSS that contain the reading bethulah in Isaiah 7:14, especially since it is more consistent with the translators style and provides a better understanding of the one place that parthenos was used inaccurately in Isaiah. |
05-01-2006, 04:34 PM | #118 |
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Even if the original Hebrew explicitly indicated that a virgin would give birth, wouldn't it have simply meant that a woman who was then a virgin (at the time the prophecy was spoken), would give birth later? Obviously the early Christians twisted this passage and mutilated it to say what they wanted.
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05-01-2006, 04:48 PM | #119 | ||
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05-01-2006, 04:55 PM | #120 | ||||||||
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A god that doesn't know good or evil... what a joke. spin |
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