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Old 03-24-2006, 03:27 PM   #81
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Originally Posted by No Robots
Isn't this begging the question? Aren't most people trying to determine who the gospel Jesus is?
Yes, if you mean that most people are trying to determine who the Jesus is behind the gospel stories, either HJ or MJ.
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Old 03-24-2006, 03:58 PM   #82
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Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
List sources contemporary to Paul that use kata sarka to refer to an earthly incarnation. If you cannot (and I know you cannot), you have no basis for claiming it was not a peculiar usage of the phrase.
Jewish War, 2.155 "επειδαν δε ανεθωσι των κατα σαρκα δεσμων"

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You will do well to develop a substantive rebuttal to Doherty's Top 20 Silences.
Your glib "This is a pseudoproblem" dismissal appears inattentive to the arguments that have been advanced. I welcome you to falsify Doherty's arguments. Lets see what you are capable of.
The arguments are thin. Actually, the arguments are horrible. He's objecting to Jesus because Paul uses Gospel of God? Moreover, Doherty is taking the gospels at face, a big no-no. When you compare the gospel accounts to Paul's letters, of course you're going to get discrepancies, silences, etc... It would be wise to remember that the gospels came after Paul. Go figure.

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You have not answered the question. Whether "Paul doesn't give much in the way of details to start with" does not explain why he used the OT and not eyewitness accounts. The rest of your comments are red herrings meant to distract readers from the issue I advanced.
Which eyewitness accounts is he supposed to use? That Paul uses the OT is a given - are Jews supposed to give up their holy book for someone? Even the OT itself warns against this. Everything that Jesus did needed to be rationalized by the OT. Without it, the actions are meaningless.

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The temple Ruckus, it has been demonstrated, was constructed using Nehemiah and other OT sources as the hypotext (see Troughton(sp?)). Plus, Fredricksen has also shown that the incident is unlikely to have happened.
Of course it was. It would be virtually impossible to do such an act and not be killed on site. That much is a given. But I thought we're talking about the historical Jesus, and not the embellished version given by the gospellers. I call strawman.

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Demonstrate that it is loaded. I challenge you to examine Michael Turton's Historical Commentary on The Gospel of Mark (online - link below) and develop an argument against the methodology he employs.
Before you do that, you have no starting point. At best, you get to demonstrate your ignorance in spectacular fashion.
With all due respect to Michael, coincidence does not necessarily rule out historicity. Nor does it rule out intentional altering, such as Mark making what happened fit the OT better. That much happens all the time in real life - why not then?

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N.T. Wright proposes that the historical Jesus was a revolutionary and saviour. Geza Vermes presents a historical Jesus who is a charismatic teacher, healer, and exorcist - a Galilean holy man. Robert H. Stein proposes that he was a supernatural historical miracle worker and saviour. Marcus Borg talks of Jesus as a spirit person, subversive sage, social prophet, and movement founder. John Dominic Crossan and Burton Mack tell us that the historical Jesus was a cynic sage/ landless labourer, displaced peasant. J.P Meier tells us that Jesus was a marginalized jew (a ‘blip’ on the radar screen of pagans and mainstream Jews), a radical egalitarian feminist socialist with a social agenda. Stevan Davies tells us that the historical Jesus was a healer - alternate personality as "the spirit of God,". Robert Eisenman hypothesizes that the historical Jesus was a Torah-observant and nationalistic Jew of insurrectionist leaning. Paula Fredriksen, Bart Ehrman, Theissen, E.P. Sanders, Dale Allison and Ludemann all claim that Jesus apocalyptic prophet. Richard Horsley tells us he was a social revolutionary for an egalitarian society. Stevan Davies claims he was a Galilean charismatic, Luke Timothy Johnson persuades us that Jesus as a son of god who was baptized and died for our sins. Riley tells us he was a Hellenistic hero. The Jesus seminar vouch for an uprooted, iconoclastic Jesus who is dissimilar to both the antedecent Jewish tradition and the christian one that followed it and who is a wandering cynic philosopher, and so on and so forth.
Half of these aren't mutually exclusive, and many of them are the same thing, with variation. And when dealing with such a popular figure as Jesus, of course many people are going to weigh in with their own hand. And with such a varied corpus (four books by four different authors, plus side commentary) you're going to result in conflicting accounts depending on who thinks what should stay. It's not important what conclusions you list - it's the methodology, or so I thought.

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I argue that this assumption inevitably informs the choices they make in their criticism. The assumption, without doubt, makes them reject alternative possibilities as they analyze historiographical evidence and taints every conclusion they draw. Like a brush soaked with paint, every stroke they make is coloured by this assumption, even when it is not intended.
We don't need to go into ad hominem attacks, Jacob. You can leave that back in grade school. If you want to actually deal with the evidence, fine, but don't you dare accuse every HJer of being biased as such.

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An important point to bear in mind is that the data does not allow us to assume, a priori, that a historical Jesus existed.
You're quite right, actually. The gospels read as ancient myth. Heck, even I was a mythicist once. There are strong arguments against historicity. But overall, the position is untenable and fails. The HJ position is the one that best explains the evidence.

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Quite the contrary. But that, is exactly what biblical scholars do: they treat the existence of a HJ is a maxim. I argue that this is the untamed demon undermining their earnest efforts and damning their conclusions.
And again, you paint us all with your denigrating brush, broad strokes. Bad form.

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If you are going to rely on him, quit while you are ahead. Kata Sarka was debated about here, fully, in a discussion involving Carrier, Doherty and Jeff Gibson. It ended up with Gibson imagining what certain professors thought.
He listed two. One he took his silence as damning, a faulty conclusion, mind you, but the other still was verbal about Carrier.

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Now, if you can get someone whose Greek credentials are better than Gibson, someone who also passionately discredits the MJ hypothesis, name him. When push came to shove, Jeff was incapable of dealing with the issues. He instead solicited opinions from professors. They refused to agree with him about Carrier's competence. He then chose to read their mind and state what they never stated.
This is inaccurate. Please go back and read the thread in question. There was a lot of behind the scenes that you were "absent" for and missed out.

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The point is, anything that compromises Mark as a historical source undermines the validity of believing that the events described in it are historical.
False. Achilles being unable to be hurt does not mean the entire Trojan War did not happen. The appearance of Grendel does not rule out Beowulf's existance. This is a terribly faulty methodology.
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Old 03-24-2006, 05:50 PM   #83
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Jewish War, 2.155 "επειδαν δε ανεθωσι των κατα σαρκα δεσμων"
But when they are set free of bonds according to the flesh....

Good job, Chris. I did not think to look for κατα σαρκα in Josephus. And in a rather famous passage at that.

Ben.
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Old 03-24-2006, 06:03 PM   #84
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
But when they are set free of bonds according to the flesh....

Good job, Chris. I did not think to look for κατα σαρκα in Josephus. And in a rather famous passage at that.
Such ignorance should not go unanswered. Let the special pleading begin!

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Old 03-24-2006, 06:49 PM   #85
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
But when they are set free of bonds according to the flesh....

Good job, Chris. I did not think to look for κατα σαρκα in Josephus. And in a rather famous passage at that.

Ben.
In context, the passage reads from here:
Quote:
11. For their doctrine is this: That bodies are corruptible, and that the matter they are made of is not permanent; but that the souls are immortal, and continue for ever; and that they come out of the most subtile air, and are united to their bodies as to prisons, into which they are drawn by a certain natural enticement; but that when they are set free from the bonds of the flesh, they then, as released from a long bondage, rejoice and mount upward.
Interesting.
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Old 03-24-2006, 06:55 PM   #86
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Originally Posted by Toto
In context, the passage reads from here:

Interesting.
Indeed. So here we have Josephus affirming that only when they are released from their bodies, which are modified by kata sarkon, can they be free to transcend this earthly realm and traverse the spiritual world. And you know what? By golly, it seems to have a faint familiarity with it? I can almost place where I heard this sort of reasoning before...

Actually, sarcasm aside, it appears that it is the only reference in all of Josephus for kata sarkon... Perhaps it was, as previously suspected, that it deals with "mystical" language and voodoo whatnot. Perhaps Paul picked up this echo from the Essenes - this, kata sarkon, is bad. Possible, plausible...probable?
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Old 03-24-2006, 08:39 PM   #87
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Jewish War, 2.155 "επειδαν δε ανεθωσι των κατα σαρκα δεσμων"
What's interesting is that the Bernard Muller that Ted Hoffman was bashing came up with this passage as well :

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Meanwhile, let's note the later expression is used about the Essenes in Josephus' Wars, II, VIII, 11: "For their doctrine is this: That bodies are corruptible, and that the matter they are made of is not permanent; but that the souls are immortal, and continue for ever; and that they come out of the most subtile air, and are united to their bodies as to prisons, into which they are drawn by a certain natural enticement; but that when they are set free [after death] from the bonds of the flesh ['kata sarka'], they then, as released from a long bondage, rejoice and mount upward."
The "flesh" here is human! Also let's note the expression is used by a Jew in a religious context (as Paul was & did!).
Anyway, I looked at Doherty's response to Muller here:

http://home.ca.inter.net/oblio/CritiquesMuller1.htm

I see a few problems with it right off the bat. First, there's the problem to which GDon alluded earlier, namely that Doherty is eliding the difference between the superlunary and sublunary spheres, where change only occurs within the latter, and higher and lower realms within the sublunar sphere. Second, Doherty also elides over the difference between Plutarch's allegorizing of the myth of Osiris and saying that the events of the Osiris myth happened in an upper realm of the sublunar sphere. Actually, he does this not only in the review but in his onw writings, where he says,

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Instead of looking back to archaic beginnings, religious ritual could reach into that parallel, upper dimension and find its paradigms, its spiritual forces, right there. In this higher world, the myths of the savior gods and of earliest Christianity had taken place. Here Attis was castrated, here Mithras had slain the bull, here Osiris had been dismembered. For more sophisticated thinkers like Plutarch and the 4th century Sallustius, such mythical stories were not literal, but merely symbolic of timeless spiritual processes which the human mind had difficulty grasping. See, for example, Plutarch’s Isis and Osiris, chapter 11.
Third, Doherty writes, "Muller makes the mistake of ignoring the principle that the same word or phrase can have more than one meaning and application, and of declaring that because it means one thing in one set of instances, it must mean it in all." This, though, is not so, since he cites several examples of the use of kata sarka, not all of which have quite the same meaning, for example:

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Aristotle, 'History of Animals', Book III, Part 17 "These cartilaginous fish themselves have no free fat at all in connexion with the flesh ['kata sarka'] or with the stomach. The suet in fish is fatty, and does not solidify or congeal. All animals are furnished with fat, either intermingled with their flesh ['kata sarka'], or apart."
Not only this, but Doherty does not point to any contextual cues to indicate why other instances of kata sarka in Paul's writings should not be interpreted in the light of the usages in Paul which clearly do not use kata sarka in the sense of "in the realm of fleshly spirits."

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Several scholars have worked on the meaning of archontes already and there is hardly anything you can add on this matter. There are a few conservatives who share your position but it is clear which side critical scholars favour.
In the first place, the word aeon (age/world) had a spiritual meaning.
R. Brown, J. Fitzmyer and R. Murphy in The New Jerome Critical Commentary, 1990, p.782 write that: "Contemporary Jewish theology contrasted 'this world (age)' with 'the world (age) to come.' Paul echoes that contrast and sees the former dominated by satan (see 1 Cor. 4:4). Christ's 'giving' of himself has brought about the meeting of the two ages (1 Cor. 10:11) and freed human beings from 'this age'"
The catch here is that the scholar that you cite, Raymond Brown, would certainly disagree with the contention that 1 Cor. 2:6-8 meant that Jesus was killed by demons directly and not by human beings. The same could be said for Paula Fredriksen, who you also cite.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Quote:
From Googling around, it isn't too clear whether you mean that Mark uses "Nazara" rather than "Nazareth," or if you mean that the Alexandrian texts do not have Mark 1:9 say, "In those days Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee and was baptized by John in the Jordan," leaving only references to Jesus being a Nazarene.

I can't say it is a big problem. If one is trying to argue that "Nazarene" wasn't a reference to "Nazareth," but the name of a member of a sect, then it is a rather peculiar coincidence that the name of this sect sounds like the name of an actual place. If you want to argue that Nazareth didn't exist in the first century, and that references to it are anachronisms penned by second-century writers, then you will have to explain why a second-century writer would put in Jesus' mouth a prediction that by that time would be obviously false, such as Mark 9:1, "there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see that the kingdom of God has come with power."
If what you do is "google around" then dismiss issues, Why dont you stick to what you can say then.
I did stick to what I could say. I wasn't sure what you were saying about the Alexandrian texts, so I pointed out the problems that I could mention. I was surprised that you didn't clarify what the Alexandrian texts did say, but instead pointed to Turton's work, which argues against Mark mentioning Nazareth, but not on the grounds of what's not in manuscripts like the Alexandrian texts. Some of Turton's arguments are especially weak:

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Here in Mark 1:9 "Nazareth" is apparently a later addition to the text. First, it does not appear in the parallel passages in Matthew or Luke. In Luke Jesus goes to the baptism from Galilee, but there is no Nazareth.
A poor argument from silence. Unlike Mark, both Matthew and Luke had made clear earlier that Jesus had come from Nazareth, and the baptism itself was not a occasion where mentioning Nazareth was all that helpful.

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This is supported by Zindler's (2000) observation that Capernaum should be read as "Home of the Paraclete," a signifying name that would well suit Jesus' mission.
Um, never mind that Capernaum was an actual first-century village.

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Yet another strike against the presence of "Nazareth" in this verse originally is that the writer of Mark never explains or apologizes for the identification of Nazareth as Jesus' hometown in his gospel (compare Matthew 2:23: "and he went and lived in a town called Nazareth. So was fulfilled what was said through the prophets: 'He will be called a Nazarene'.")
Another poor argument from silence. Saying that such-and-such event fulfilled the scriptures is a quirk of Matthew, not something equally common to all the Gospels.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
Yet what apologists keep asking Doherty when he provides his interpretation of kata sarka is to provide precise, logical details.
No, what is being asked for are indications that an event that would normally take place on terra firma would happen in an upper stratum of a Platonic sub-lunar heaven.
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Old 03-24-2006, 08:45 PM   #88
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Originally Posted by Toto
In context, the passage reads from here:
Another interesting passage is just below that (my emphasis):

12. There are also those among them who undertake to foretell things to come, (7) by reading the holy books, and using several sorts of purifications, and being perpetually conversant in the discourses of the prophets; and it is but seldom that they miss in their predictions.

I think this underlines why the gospels had to tie back to stories in the OT so strongly -- details in the gospels not found in the OT would have been used against Christians.
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Old 03-25-2006, 02:02 AM   #89
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ted Hoffman
List sources contemporary to Paul that use kata sarka to refer to an earthly incarnation...
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Jewish War, 2.155 "επειδαν δε ανεθωσι των κατα σαρκα δεσμων"
Jewish War, 2.155?
Wars, II, VIII, 11 is theosophical explanation. It is talking about the nature of mortal beings. Christ was not a mortal being. It would be incorrect to expect a Christological passage to be based on the same motif as that of a mortal.
You can oversimplify things force-fit them if you want though. I find this approach simplistic and lacking careful consideration of the passages being compared.
Pauline Christology is not based on the interpretation of kata sarka alone. You have to factor in what Paul says elsewhere regarding the nature of Christ. And we know that Paul does not place Christ anywhere on earth to begin with.
So how can we expect him to believe Christ was an earthly mortal? This is a typical instance of MJ opponents importing gospel suppositions into an interpretation of Paul.
We know Marcion did not believe Christ to have been on earth. Considering Paul's gnostic leanings, we are justified to reason that his beliefs on Jesus were not fundamentally based on a flesh and blood man.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
The arguments are thin. Actually, the arguments are horrible.
Please show us how so.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Moreover, Doherty is taking the gospels at face, a big no-no. When you compare the gospel accounts to Paul's letters, of course you're going to get discrepancies, silences, etc... It would be wise to remember that the gospels came after Paul. Go figure.
I figure that you are mistaken.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Which eyewitness accounts is he supposed to use?
Those that witnessed his miracle feats. Those that were allegedly whipped out of the temple or those that witnessed the whipping victims. Those that witnessed his dramatic entry into Jerusalem on the back of a colt etc etc.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
That Paul uses the OT is a given - are Jews supposed to give up their holy book for someone?
Prophecies have not been known to be a source of historical information. He could have asked eyewitnesses what Jesus taught for example, regarding flesh and the inheritance of the Kingdom of God.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Everything that Jesus did needed to be rationalized by the OT.
This would only be relevant if Paul in fact, did rationalize what Jesus did with the OT.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Of course it was. It would be virtually impossible to do such an act and not be killed on site. That much is a given. But I thought we're talking about the historical Jesus, and not the embellished version given by the gospellers. I call strawman.
Oh, other than the gospels, from where can I learn more about this historical Jesus that you mention?
You have a reliable methodology that I can use to separate the embellishments from the facts?
Please present it here.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
With all due respect to Michael, coincidence does not necessarily rule out historicity. Nor does it rule out intentional altering, such as Mark making what happened fit the OT better.
Have you read Michael's work?
Where does he argue that coincidence alone is used to rule out historicity?
Is an altered narrative applicable as a reliable historical document?
How do you separate what has been altered from what has not been altered?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Half of these aren't mutually exclusive
You claim that you are an atheist. An atheist does not believe in the supernatural. The supernatural Jesus (per Luke Timothy Johnson) is mutually exclusive with the natural, historical Jesus.
Almost all of these conservative scholars (e.g.Stevan Davies and Sanders) believe that Jesus was a man who was capable of supernatural feats.
As an atheist, what method do you use to retain the natural from the supernatural? Your own bias?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
...with such a varied corpus (four books by four different authors, plus side commentary) you're going to result in conflicting accounts depending on who thinks what should stay.
List three historical personages that have such a fluid nature.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
It's not important what conclusions you list - it's the methodology, or so I thought.
Yes. And we are now waiting for your methodology.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
There are strong arguments against historicity. But overall, the position is untenable and fails.
We now await to see the methodology that you employed to reach this conclusion.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Achilles being unable to be hurt does not mean the entire Trojan War did not happen. The appearance of Grendel does not rule out Beowulf's existance. This is a terribly faulty methodology
A faulty analogy does not help your case. An account that has been shown to be fictionalized cannot be used as a historical source.
If you are using sources other than the gospels to derive the life of a historical Jesus, please feel free to list them.
You cannot claim that "The gospels read as ancient myth" and then turn around and use them as evidence that a HJ existed.

It is like using a gun that has been shown to have been planted by the Police to argue that a gun was used in a murder case.
You cannot eat your cake and have it.

You cannot validly claim you are an atheist and yet lump together ideologically with religious people who are engaging in theology and purport to present them as critical scholars.
We have had people in the past who have claimed to be atheists here and upon investigation, have been exposed as frauds.
I hope that is not the case with you because the smell of fish wherever you post assails my olfactory system to a significant degree.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
He listed two. One he took his silence as damning, a faulty conclusion, mind you, but the other still was verbal about Carrier.
"Verbal about Carrier" is a meaningless statement that does nothing to challenge what I have stated regarding what Gibson did.
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Old 03-25-2006, 02:37 AM   #90
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Odd comments here - voodoo. This stuff about principalities and third heavens etc should not be dismissed out of hand, but neither should it be assumed to be as fixed as some seem to be thinking - with heaven over there and earth over here.

These are rational minds much like ours but without the now huge body of knowledge we now have about how the universe works.

There will be huge variances in how the ancients perceived things - and how they thought the interactions between the gods and us humans worked out.

There are some very significant themes - ancient psychological issues directly related to our consciousness, our awareness of death and loss, of transcendence.

This story - of god and man becoming one - the ultimate unifying of the two worlds, of the creating of a new heaven and earth - is a logical outcome of alchemic thinking.

Experience shows cause and effect all over the place.

Take that a step further and you have the concept of first cause.

Experience shows to all of us that we are mortal and yet we dream immortal thoughts.

Next step, how might this dichotomy be resolved? Religious practices, magic, rituals are a very common way for us to bring the sublime and the ridiculous together.

Next step - Invent Christs to do this better.

Next step invent LORD JESUS CHRIST

Next step have an eternal once for all sacrifice.

Actually, I would argue God had to sacrifice Jesus, like Abraham and Isaac, but "for real" this time! This is something that could not be delegated.

But very unclear where - why would the ancients have a clear picture of the heavenly spheres when it is all imaginary in any case? Remember, the key people admit they are working from visions - Paul, John in Revelation. Why not an earthly sacrifice - it is made up! Look at the heresies - some state Jesus was some kind of spirit!

I thought Hebrews was very early - pre gospels - and I think seeing an earthly Jesus in there is reading stuff that ain't there!

We may have a cobbled together view about several Jesi with a huge supernatural Christ.

Balance of probabilities feels weighted towards an early Flash Gordon, Saviour of the Universe.

I have posted this before - I think it is very important to not confuse how the New Testament - and modern church practice - uses the terms Lord, Jesus and Christ. If Christ is used by itself, I think it is a direct reference to a heavenly being - it is not a shorthand. This is something that is easily edited - insert a Jesus or a Christ in various places and change the meaning!
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