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Old 11-23-2003, 04:21 PM   #51
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Originally posted by CJD

p.s. Yuri, your backhandedness smacks of foolishness. Any idiot can do "tons of research" and "detailed studies."
Oh, really, CJD?

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The real task is making coherent sense of it all.
See just below re "coherent sense".

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That, dear poetaster, you have failed miserably to do (despite the ad hominem disclaimer that NT scholars cannot handle it).
Well, I'm still waiting for any coherent critique of my theory, from _any_ NT scholar.

And in reply to Bernard, I'm not really all that interested in discussing how the SOM title originated. I do accept the mainstream interpretation that it's just another Messianic title for Jesus, that derived originally from Daniel. I also accept a rather common view that Jesus never actually used it in real life (as a specific title, although he was probably quite aware of this Daniel passage).

The only question IMHO is when was this title first introduced. I say it was well after the early versions of all 4 gospels were already written. The title was inserted later into their texts.

Regards,

Yuri.
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Old 11-24-2003, 01:40 AM   #52
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Originally posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
I'm not really all that interested in discussing how the SOM title originated. I do accept the mainstream interpretation that it's just another Messianic title for Jesus, that derived originally from Daniel. I also accept a rather common view that Jesus never actually used it in real life (as a specific title, although he was probably quite aware of this Daniel passage).

The only question IMHO is when was this title first introduced. I say it was well after the early versions of all 4 gospels were already written. The title was inserted later into their texts.

Regards,

Yuri.
I find it hard to postulate that SoM was inserted later into the gospel texts, when you consider that most of the manifestations of SoM in Mark are found parallelled in the other synoptics. What are you proposing, that editors later placed them in the correct places in the other gospels? I think it is much easier to see that the term was already in the source material for the other two gospels. Perhaps you had another construction in mind.


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Old 11-24-2003, 08:57 AM   #53
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Originally posted by spin
I find it hard to postulate that SoM was inserted later into the gospel texts, when you consider that most of the manifestations of SoM in Mark are found parallelled in the other synoptics.
This is based on the faith in Markan priority. But I'm not one of the believers.

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What are you proposing, that editors later placed them in the correct places in the other gospels?
Yes, more or less.

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I think it is much easier to see that the term was already in the source material for the other two gospels.
Why?

Yuri.
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Old 11-24-2003, 09:38 AM   #54
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Originally posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
This is based on the faith in Markan priority. But I'm not one of the believers.
I didn't given any priority, though I did only mention Mark. Naughty assumption.

My only statement is that nearly all of those examples of SoM in Mark are found in exactly the same places in the other synoptics.

What makes me marvel is that the implication of scribes inserting SoM into the gospels would mean that they were working with all three synoptics going through to make sure that they were in the same place. While this sort of artificial situation isn't necessary if one assumes priority to one gospel or another and the redactor already finds SoM in situ.

I merely impose Okkam's Razor: it is far simpler to copy a form than it is to insert it into different texts at the right places.


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Old 11-24-2003, 11:33 AM   #55
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Originally posted by spin
I didn't given any priority, though I did only mention Mark. Naughty assumption.

My only statement is that nearly all of those examples of SoM in Mark are found in exactly the same places in the other synoptics.

What makes me marvel is that the implication of scribes inserting SoM into the gospels would mean that they were working with all three synoptics going through to make sure that they were in the same place.
So what's so difficult about this?

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While this sort of artificial situation isn't necessary if one assumes priority to one gospel or another and the redactor already finds SoM in situ.
This is not an artificial situation.

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I merely impose Okkam's Razor: it is far simpler to copy a form than it is to insert it into different texts at the right places.
spin
There's indeed much evidence that all 3 Synoptics were edited together in a co-ordinated way after they became canonical. There's some evident cross-pollination among them. This being the case, it's not so difficult to also add SOM in a co-ordinated way to the Synoptic sayings of Jesus.

Yuri.
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Old 11-24-2003, 11:35 AM   #56
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Originally posted by Yuri Kuchinsky
There's indeed much evidence that all 3 Synoptics were edited together in a co-ordinated way after they became canonical. There's some evident cross-pollination among them. This being the case, it's not so difficult to also add SOM in a co-ordinated way to the Synoptic sayings of Jesus.

Can I assume the above statement can be applied to the Aramaic texts as well as the Greek?
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Old 11-24-2003, 11:41 AM   #57
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There's indeed much evidence that all 3 Synoptics were edited together in a co-ordinated way after they became canonical.
If they were edited together as you claim, then you can have no way of showing it. We only see the influence of cross-fertilization when we have some external perspective.


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Old 11-26-2003, 11:37 AM   #58
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Originally posted by spin
If they were edited together as you claim, then you can have no way of showing it.
Why not? Some cross-pollination among the gospels is evident even to a casual observer. So of course such evidence can be assembled together and analysed. Surely it has been analysed already by various scholars in a variety of ways. I've seen such studies before.

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We only see the influence of cross-fertilization when we have some external perspective.

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Yours,

Yuri.
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Old 11-26-2003, 11:45 AM   #59
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YURI: There's indeed much evidence that all 3 Synoptics were edited together in a co-ordinated way after they became canonical. There's some evident cross-pollination among them. This being the case, it's not so difficult to also add SOM in a co-ordinated way to the Synoptic sayings of Jesus.

Amaleq13:
Can I assume the above statement can be applied to the Aramaic texts as well as the Greek?
Well, there's this simple fact that the Old Syriac gospels do have SOM in all the same places as the standard Greek text (with perhaps one or two exceptions). And according to the theory that I'm proposing, all these instances of SOM were added later to the Old Syriac text. In what way they were added, I'm not sure.

Regards,

Yuri.
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Old 11-26-2003, 08:01 PM   #60
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Originally posted by spin
If they were edited together as you claim, then you can have no way of showing it.

Posted by Yuri
Why not? Some cross-pollination among the gospels is evident even to a casual observer. So of course such evidence can be assembled together and analysed. Surely it has been analysed already by various scholars in a variety of ways. I've seen such studies before.

Attached to the previous bit posted by spin
We only see the influence of cross-fertilization when we have some external perspective.
Did you have to say anything at all, when the answer was in the sentence afterwards?


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