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Old 12-03-2004, 06:45 AM   #11
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IOW, Mark is a liar.
OR he simply reported what Jesus called Himself.
Or Mark is confused/mistaken. Or his sources are confusedmistaken. Or Mark is writing in a literary style in which the main characters are give epithets so the listening audience can remember who they are (recall that in the ancient world books were read aloud). Or the writer of the Gospel is not the Mark identified by Papias, but some other Mark (only about the most common name in the Roman Empire). etc.

Beware of dichotomies; they are always false, and inhibit clear thinking by confining it to safe channels.

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Old 12-03-2004, 06:50 AM   #12
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Mark is writing to gentiles who do not know that the title "Son of Man" is derived from Enoch and Daniel where it means Divine Messiah.
Or perhaps from Ezekiel, who also uses the term, in conjunction with parable telling, in fact. Hmmm...
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Old 12-03-2004, 12:33 PM   #13
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
Passages like Mark 7:3-4...MAY indicate that the audience had limited familiarity with Judaism, if they need that sort of elementary explanation.
I agree that this passage suggests a lack of familiarity with the practice described but it is apparently a lack that the author shares. According to Price (The Incredible Shrinking Son of Man), the author has incorrectly generalized the behavior of Diaspora Jews to the Palestinian Jews in the story.

While this suggests a lack of familiarity with certain Palestinian Jewish practices, I'm not sure that can be generalized to a lack of familiarity with the "Son of God" concept as Willow argues. Also, that the author is apparently equally unfamiliar seems problematic for his argument.
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