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Old 02-18-2006, 07:12 AM   #91
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Originally Posted by David B
Well, I'd suggest that inerrancy demands internal consistency, and agreement with well established science, without special pleading.

And further suggest that the bible doesn't meet those criteria.

David B
Where does the bible disagree with science? I'm sorry but there is only a science vs religion debate if the religious side of the debate consists in Biblical literalists. But Biblical literalism takes Bible verses completely out of their original context (not to mention the fact that Genesis was written before people had an understanding of 'history'!).

Internal inconsistency is a bit of a more complicated issue, but I don't think the argument is very easy to hold for the simple reason that so much of it consists in interpretation.
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Old 02-18-2006, 07:56 AM   #92
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Originally Posted by Zenaphobe
Are you saying that all examinations of the Bible should start with a default position of inerrency because its authors claim their writings are true?
Zenaphobe, I'm simply pointing out two things.

a) the difficulty of establishing any methodology as actually neutral

b) the fact that the current "scientific" critical methodologies are decidedly not neutral (they would have no way to recognize an inerrant text) and in the textual aspect the current methodology will create the errancy for which the "scientist" is looking and desiring, ie. an endued errancy.

How you decide to view the Bible is your decision, however one should not declare an inaccurate (phoney) scientific "neutrality" if the methodology is as (2) above

Shalom,
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Old 02-18-2006, 06:22 PM   #93
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Originally Posted by Helpmabob
The Bible has never forced me to err, or encouraged me to desire to do evil.
Shakespeare has never forced me to err or encouraged me to desire to do evil. Should I therefore consider him infallible?
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Old 02-18-2006, 06:32 PM   #94
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Originally Posted by praxeus
I'm simply pointing out two things.

a) the difficulty of establishing any methodology as actually neutral
Is there any possibility of your believing a methology to be neutral if it were to prove the Bible was errant?

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Originally Posted by praxeus
b) the fact that the current "scientific" critical methodologies are decidedly not neutral (they would have no way to recognize an inerrant text)
Is that your "neutrality test"? It has to be able to prove that an inerrant text is inerrant?
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Old 02-19-2006, 12:57 AM   #95
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Is that your "neutrality test"?
Doug, I didn't say that I had a "neutrality test". In fact, there may not be such a test possible, I'm not that much of a logician and theoretician.

We shouldn't always assume our methods are proper or sufficient for the task we claim for them. And a combination of source, redaction and textual criticism is about as un-neutral as you can get for the purpose we are discussing here.

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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
It has to be able to prove that an inerrant text is inerrant?
Doug, to give a simple example... it seems obvious that there are methodologies that are designed to create an errant text, such as by abject overuse of lectio difficilior, thereby actually putting errors in the text against the historic Bible and against overwhelming manuscript evidence. ..... Then they "find" the very "errors" that they create ... it is simply wrong to call such stuff as "neutral".

Anyone who uses such methodologies and then trumpets them as "scientific" and therefore "neutral" is either deceiving themselves, or others, or both.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 02-19-2006, 11:18 AM   #96
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Originally Posted by praxeus
Doug, I didn't say that I had a "neutrality test". In fact, there may not be such a test possible, I'm not that much of a logician and theoretician.
How about a methodology that is applied uniformly to all ancient texts?
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Old 02-19-2006, 05:48 PM   #97
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How about a methodology that is applied uniformly to all ancient texts?
Sure sounds reasonable. Do you have a proposed methodology that is truly "neutral", that does not presuppose or create errancy within the methodology itself ?
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Old 02-19-2006, 06:06 PM   #98
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Shakespeare has never forced me to err or encouraged me to desire to do evil. Should I therefore consider him infallible?
He was infallible, wasn't he? . . . and not just because we like him.
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Old 02-19-2006, 06:15 PM   #99
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The evidence of God on the cross, prepared to die for us whilst we were still sinners.
That is not evidence...that is a story. A story that is not verified anywhere else outside of the Bible. There is no evidence that this event ever happend other than the Bible's say-so.

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No, the Holy Spirit is God.
Unsupported assertion.
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I don’t know what you mean exactly by a ‘fundamentalist christian’. I can only speak for myself when I say that I claim no righteousness but that which Christ graciously gives. Whether someone else’s morals are better or worse than mine therefore has no bearing on the important matter of my salvation.
So it doesn't matter is someone is more moral than you...you're still the only one who gets the "Get Out Of Jail Free" card? Because, of course, you are right and everyone else is wrong...the Bible says so.
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Interesting – I’ll need to look into that. It is funny that all of the people were not convinced of the message even in the sight of many miracles.
Since it's questionable that any of these miracles actually occurred, I wouldn't be surprised by that.
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I am curious, how would one go about spotting an error in the Bible? What could be constituted as an error?
How about the Bible claiming one thing to be true when all available evidence says different?
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Old 02-19-2006, 06:57 PM   #100
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How about the Bible claiming one thing to be true when all available evidence says different?
I think it would be a good thing to focus on a specific claim rather than generalites. What error have you found?
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