Originally Posted by storytime

If the disciples were told to go into all the nations of the world, then why did Jesus not go into Rome?

If Jesus purpose was to make disciples from all nations of the world, would he have not intended they become Jewish? Or do you think Jesus would have been promoting Gentilism - no laws, no covenants, and worship of other gods such as Apollo, Mercury, Jupiter, etc. ?

Even with all the screwed up text, I think the story relates how Jesus was gathering Jews and not Gentiles into his kingdom of Judaism (kingdom of God). Did Gods kingdom ever exist anywhere other than his namesake Israel in the ONE seed called Jacob?

Originally Posted by Chris Weimer

Can you show that it's a interpolation?

Originally Posted by John Kesler

I never said that I can. I said that "the thread starter mentioned the possibility that Matthew 28:19 is an interpolation." To answer your question, I don't know of any textual reason to exclude it, but as Craig Keener mentions on page 717 of A Commentary on the Gospel of Matthew (or via: amazon.co.uk), "many doubt the authenticity of this baptismal formula...its specific form could be a Matthean or traditional construct summarizing what they felt was Jesus' idea."

Originally Posted by stuart shepherd

There are a couple of people who quoted the ending of Matthew in early church writings. Their quotations do not include the part about making disciples of all nations and the trinitarian formula. So obviously this was a later addition to the text.
I'm sorry that I don't remember more details but seek and you shall find.

stuart shepherd

Originally Posted by andrewcriddle

Eusebius of Caesarea particularly in his earlier works quotes the ending of Matthew in a shorter (non-Trinitarian form). IMHO this is probably because of reverence towards a sacred formula and does not imply the use of a different Greek text of Matthew


Andrew Criddle

Originally Posted by angelo atheist

In Mathew, prior to Jesus's entry into Jerusalem, Jesus says to the Disciples, ''Truly, Isay to you, in the new world, when the son of man shall sit on his glorious throne, you who have followed me will also sit on twelve thrones, judging the TWELVE TRIBES OF ISRAEL'' [19;28] There is no mention there of any gentiles, is there.

Originally Posted by Clouseau

Jesus was preaching to all, but demonstrating to Jews that he was the Messiah, because they had the checkable data.

Originally Posted by Clouseau

No, but the twelve tribes are analogous to the full number of those saved by faith, as promised to Abraham who was accounted righteous by his faith. The gentiles in reality are those who do not have faith in Jesus, whether they are Jews or not.

The true Israelite, the true Jew, is a Christian, and everyone else is nowhere. Nothing else matters in the end.

Originally Posted by Amaleq13