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Old 04-15-2006, 01:40 AM   #451
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
Because I firmly believe it would serve no useful purpose.
So? Many things don't have a useful purpose. Welcome to aesthetics.
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Old 04-15-2006, 12:21 PM   #452
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Originally Posted by oudis
No, Jesus' original followers were based in Jerusalem.
Jerusalem? According to the NT, his disciples were recruited in Galilee and accompanied him to Jerusalem at the end.

Of course, it is an article of Christian faith that many Jerusalemites were moved to conversion by Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection. Luke reported a mass conversion there after the resurrection, but there is nothing to confirm his report, and no evidence that a significant portion of the population converted to Christianity. No gospels are believed to have been written in Jerusalem; the only reports of Christians in that city come from writers who were based outside of Palestine, writers who on several occasions displayed ignorance of Palestinian geography.

The great 2nd and 3rd century upsurge in conversions to Christianity took place, not in Palestine, but in the Diaspora.

I would be interested to learn of credible archeological or epigraphic evidence of a large Christian presence in mid- and late first or second century Jerusalem. According to Rodney Stark and others, all the action was in the Diaspora.

I would also be interested in hearing a HISTORICAL (as opposed to theological) explanation for the failure of Christianity to attract large numbers of Jewish converts in Jerusalem and elsewhere.

Didymus
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Old 04-16-2006, 07:17 AM   #453
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Of a Galilean peasant-prophet? I don't think so.
Why not? Because he was Galilean, or because he was a peasant?
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Old 04-17-2006, 06:30 AM   #454
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith
This kind of reading might hold up for further scrutiny for Luke 9.27, but it appears to fail at its parallel in Mark 9.1:
And Jesus was saying to them: Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God after it has come with power.
Surely an aside aimed directly at the reader would not be prefaced with an explicit statement of its address to the original audience. You and I have also discussed the same problem on Olivet, where Mark frames the entire discourse as a private message to four particular disciples. That is not how an author normally writes when he is deliberately aiming over the heads of the inscribed audience.

Ben.
Here's how I see it. Just as many preachers today try to convince their audiences that they are living in the end times by pointing out "signs" mentioned in the Bible, Mark is trying to convince his audience that the end is near by quoting the "founder" of their religion. Mark is saying "listen, people, the end is near. The kingdom of God will soon be upon us. How do I know? I know because 40 years ago, Jesus told members of his own generation that some of them would still be alive when it happens." Even if Mark was writing later than 70, there might well be members of Jesus' generation still alive. Since Jesus says "some" will not taste of death, rather than "all," the prophesy has not failed--yet--if there is ONE member of that generation still alive. Remember, too, that there could have been (assuming, for the moment, an HJ) children in Jesus' audience. Someone who was five years old in 30 CE would only be 45 in 70 CE or 75 in 100 CE. Sure, people didn't live as long ON AVERAGE in the first century, but there's always somebody who beats the average. If you're listening to the Gospel of Mark being read out in say, 70 CE, you probably know a lot of people older than 45. In 100 CE, you would probably know some people older than 75. The prophesy would still be valid. But the clock would definitely be ticking.

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Old 04-17-2006, 08:44 AM   #455
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Welcome to aesthetics.
Beauty causes pleasure in the beholder. I believe pleasure has a purpose.
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