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Old 12-15-2007, 09:03 AM   #191
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Originally Posted by gstafleu View Post
Well, strange as it sounds I actually think we have made some progress here: we now both agree that 'there are no passages that explicitly describe Christ descending "to earth"'. Good.
That isn't progress unless you refer to your own understanding of my position since I have never said otherwise.

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I think we also both agree that there are passages that explicitly put Christ in heaven...
I've been explicit on that point so there should be no doubt.

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The becoming-like-human passages don't seem to be accompanied by an explicit location.
Where does 1:6 say God brought his "firstbegotten"?

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Rather, they seem to be surrounded by passages that are located in heaven...
Yes, the author is clearly placing his emphasis on what Christ did in Heaven. Funny how he never says that one of those things was getting executed.

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You infer from the fact that he became like humans that he therefore, like humans, had to be on earth.
Not "had to be on earth" but "the most obvious and appropriate location is on earth" given no evidence of any other location for the activity.

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There is no explicit text saying so (unlike the explicit text we have for his heavenly phase), but it can be derived from the idea of becoming like humans. Agreed, it can.
It is more than just "it can". It is the most obvious possibility and, absent assumptions of Doherty's thesis, no other possibility suggests itself from the text.

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I on the other hand don't make that inference.
For no other reason than because you have already accepted Doherty's thesis.

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I notice the lack of any explicit location in the flesh scenes, and wonder why they left it out when it was explicit in the heavenly scenes:...
Do you take into consideration the fact that the author never actually describes the crucifixion? Is it reasonable to expect an explicit location to be given for a scene that is never described?

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(So your point 2 above is incorrect, Hebrews only describes one location, the heavenly one, it (possibly) implies the second, earthly, one.)
Have you actually read the epistle? I mean the entire epistle all the way through and not just the bits and pieces Doherty references.

I ask because you don't have to go very far to find an explicit reference to earth as a location:
"And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him." (1:6, KJV, emphasis mine)

"the word" = oikoumenē: 1) the inhabited earth

See what you miss when you stop reading too soon?

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Next, I conclude that, given the lack of anything explicit about being on earth...
Get back to me when you rethink your position given this step was clearly faulty.

You are clearly still interpreting the text while assuming your conclusion. It will require effort on your part to read it differently. You have to choose to make that effort or you will never see how the evidence appears without the tint of your glasses.
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Old 12-15-2007, 09:08 AM   #192
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"Christ has not entered the holy places made with hands."

Sorry? The moneychangers story? Or might this be a reference to bodies as temples?
The moneychangers were certainly not set up in the Holy Place of the Temple, Clive. Only the priest could enter and, according to the text, only with sacrificed blood.

Christ never enters "the holy places" in any of the Gospels.
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Old 12-15-2007, 12:14 PM   #193
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"Christ has not entered the holy places made with hands."

Sorry? The moneychangers story? Or might this be a reference to bodies as temples?
The moneychangers were certainly not set up in the Holy Place of the Temple, Clive. Only the priest could enter and, according to the text, only with sacrificed blood.

Christ never enters "the holy places" in any of the Gospels.
Why does that sound like apologetics?

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Could you please point me to something in Plato which establishes the "classic Platonic fashion" of things in "heaven" needing to be duplicated on earth?
Will Paul do - glass darkly?

And now I have completely misunderstood the cave have I?

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The part I wanted to highlighted was the idea that Christ entered heaven, with the implication that previously he wasn't in heaven.
But Hebrews explicitly puts him in heaven as the creator of the worlds!

Please everyone, look carefully at the time line here. Hebrews and revelation might be the earliest documents

http://faculty.washington.edu/smcohen/320/cave.htm
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Old 12-15-2007, 12:23 PM   #194
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But Hebrews explicitly puts him in heaven as the creator of the worlds!
It does no such thing. Please show me through an analysis of the grammar of διʼοὗ καὶ ἐποίησεν τοὺς αἰῶνας how one can get the Son to be the subject of ἐποίησεν and therefore, as you claim, the one who created τοὺς αἰῶνας, let alone from "heaven".

Jeffrey
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Old 12-15-2007, 01:38 PM   #195
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13 View Post
Where does 1:6 say God brought his "firstbegotten"?
Doherty once wrote of a different verse in Hebrews:

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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty
Now, I can ask in return, why did this author not in fact write “In the days of his life on earth,” which would have been a far more natural way to put it? Why does no one in all the epistles write such a phrase? There is a perfectly good word available for “earth.” If they had used it, we wouldn’t have these endless debates over the stereotyped and odd use of “sarx” all through this literature as the sole means of expressing Jesus’ supposed earthly career.
This sounded as if all one had to do was to find some place in the epistles that used one of those perfectly good words available for earth and applied it to the location of Jesus.

The term oikoumene in Hebrews 1.6 is one of those perfectly good words available for earth, and it locates Jesus. When I pointed this out, Earl accused me of ignoring the context.

It seemed to me that the goalposts had moved a bit.

He also said that 1 Clement 60.1...:
You through your operations made manifest the everlasting fabric of the world. You, Lord, created the earth [συ, κυριε, την οικουμενην εκτισας]. You who are faithful throughout all generations, righteous in your judgments, marvelous in strength and excellence, you who are wise in creating and prudent in establishing that which you have made, who are good in the things which are seen and faithful with those who trust on you, pitiful and compassionate, forgive us our iniquities and our unrighteousnesses and our transgressions and shortcomings.
...proved that oikoumene could include the spirit realm and thus could encompass heaven. I asked him to explain this for me, but he maintained radio silence on the issue.

Finally, he also pointed to Hebrews 2.5 (the inhabited earth to come). Yet it is clear that many Jews expected the world to come to be exactly this present earth recast so as to kick out the Romans, establish the kingdom, and so forth. I think Hebrews 2.5 means exactly what it says: The inhabited earth as it will be once the eschatological calendar has run its course.

Ben.
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Old 12-15-2007, 01:39 PM   #196
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Why does that sound like apologetics?
All contrary ideas sound like apologetics to those who are deaf to reason.

Ben.
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Old 12-15-2007, 02:17 PM   #197
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I'm getting totally lost here, so let me try something else. I think you are saying that it is invalid to use data that led to the original formulation of the hypothesis as evidence for that hypothesis, as that would be circular. OK, so here is my proposition. I have never read Hebrews before. I read the first four verses, see that this Son is presented as a heavenly being,
Would you please do two things:

1. define what you mean by "heavenly being"
God, an angel, a cherubim, God's first begotten, ...
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2. tell me what it is that you see in Hebrews 1:1-4 that indicates that the author sees the Son's "sitting at the right hand of 'the greatness in high places'" was not temporally preceded by -- and a result of -- something the Son did on earth in obedience to the divine will?
Nothing, but that is completely irrelevant to the argument. Neither is there something in these verses that says that this sitting was "temporally preceded by -- and a result of -- something the Son did on earth." My point is that both the creation activity and the sitting occur in heaven. These heavenly scenes surround the bit about the purification of sins. Since no relocation is indicated with regard to the purification, it is reasonable to assume that it occurred in heaven as well. Certainly it is unreasonable to assume it occurred somewhere else without some evidence for that assumption.

I've mentioned a couple of times now that the placing of Christ in the heavens is explicit on a number of occasions (4:14, 7:26, 8:1), with the word heavens in plain view. Nowhere is the word "earth" in plain view. Without that I'd say that the heavenly hypothesis has some priority over the earthly one. Unless you can show me a place in Hebrews where Christ is placed on earth as clearly as he is placed in heavens.

Gerard Stafleu
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Old 12-15-2007, 02:31 PM   #198
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13 View Post
Where does 1:6 say God brought his "firstbegotten"?
Into the oikumene. Earl has a passage about that in his article, part 1:
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Originally Posted by Doherty
The word for “world” here is oikoumenē. In normal usage, this word is defined as “the inhabited earth.” But it seems that Hebrews’ ‘inhabited earth’ is populated only by angels, and since the word occurs in the midst of a passage which is entirely devoted to depictions of Christ in heaven, we are entitled to take oikoumenē as having, as Bauer’s Lexicon calls it, “an extraordinary use.” Bauer applies this not to Hebrews 1:6, but to 1 Clement 60:1, “where oikoumenē seems to mean the whole world (so far as living beings inhabit it, therefore the realm of spirits as well).”
So, apparently it is not just Doherty who thinks the meaning of oikumene cane be wider than just terra firma.
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Yes, the author is clearly placing his emphasis on what Christ did in Heaven. Funny how he never says that one of those things was getting executed.
Yes, funny. And he does say that Christ got executed on earth where...?

Gerard Stafleu
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Old 12-15-2007, 02:42 PM   #199
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But Hebrews explicitly puts him in heaven as the creator of the worlds!
It does no such thing. Please show me through an analysis of the grammar of διʼοὗ καὶ ἐποίησεν τοὺς αἰῶνας how one can get the Son to be the subject of ἐποίησεν and therefore, as you claim, the one who created τοὺς αἰῶνας, let alone from "heaven".

Jeffrey
In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

?
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Old 12-15-2007, 02:50 PM   #200
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There are also other references, like Christ arising "from the tribe of Judah", that have been mentioned earlier, that appear to make sense in an earthly setting.
Yes, it makes sense in an earthly setting, but equally so in a heavenly one. To quote from Earl's article (pt 1):
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Originally Posted by Doherty
E. F. Scott, as quoted by Price [The Epistle to the Hebrews, p.116-17], declares that “the divine realities are conceived of in a literal and concrete fashion…they are actual things, corresponding on a higher plane to their earthly copies. There is a heavenly Jerusalem, a heavenly sanctuary. The priesthood which Christ exercises is the counterpart, in no merely figurative sense, of the levitical priesthood.” (Scott, incidentally, is of the older generation like Moffatt.) I fully agree. But the more that scholars like Scott stress this literal actuality in the heavenly side of the equation, the more they are acknowledging the Platonic nature of it all. The more they support the concept of counterpart realities in the spiritual realm to earthly realities, the more they provide support for the mythicist case. Opening the door to literal heavenly cities and sanctuaries, literal priesthoods and blood of sacrifice, also opens the door to heavenly crucifixions and the suffering and death of a god, to being “of David’s seed” or “of the tribe of Judah” in a spiritual context.
(my bold)
So that phrase is neutral and doesn't help us one way or another.
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Also, Heb 9:23-28:
"23 Therefore it was necessary that the copies of the things in the heavens should be purified with these, but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these. 24 For Christ has not entered the holy places made with hands, which are copies of the true, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us; 25 not that He should offer Himself often, as the high priest enters the Most Holy Place every year with blood of another-- 26 He then would have had to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now, once at the end of the ages, He has appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. 27 And as it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment, 28 so Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many. To those who eagerly wait for Him He will appear a second time, apart from sin, for salvation."
"Christ has entered heaven, and will appear a second time to those who eagerly wait for him" suggests that Christ wasn't in heaven at the time of the sacrifice. "Appearing a second time", combined with arising from the tribe of Judah, suggests that he went from earth to heaven, and will be returning to earth.
It suggests he went from a place A to a place B, and may return to B. What are A and B? To quote Earl:
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Originally Posted by Doherty
In regard to 9:24-26, Attridge acknowledges that the author’s language throughout his work is “Platonizing” in regard to the contrast between heavenly and earthly tabernacles. He even, quite interestingly, detects a further “Platonizing motif” in the reference to Christ entering “heaven itself” (verse 24) to appear before God. This suggests, he says [p.263],
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“a distinction between the innermost or uppermost heaven where God is enthroned, the heavenly inner sanctuary, and the outer or lower heavens that correspond to the portion of the tabernacle outside the veil.”
So apparently even Attridge thinks Christ is moving between heavens. So both A and B can be in the heavens. Again, the problem is that while the heavenly location is always made explicit, the presumed earthly one never is, we always have to somehow deduce it. So it is here. It is explicitly stated that he has entered "into heaven itself," but it is not stated that he did so from earth, that we have to deduce. Similarly "He will appear a second time," but from where (presumably heaven, at least that is explicitly stated as his current location) and to where is not stated. Yes, he will appear "[t]o those who eagerly wait for Him." Will he do that in the flesh? Or in one of these Paulinesque visions? We don't know. There really is not a lot we can get from this in the way of location on terra firma.

Gerard Stafleu
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