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Old 06-05-2007, 08:29 AM   #161
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Maybe the a priori assumption should be MJ, since we are dealing with documents purporting to be the biography of a God/Man.
Interesting point.

Is it possible to approach the study without an a priori assumption of some kind? In theory, yes. In reality, the answer seems to be no.
I think, in this case we do not have the luxury of a groundlaying assumption. The gospels assert that Jesus was historical.

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So. What assumption should we make at the outset? What a priori assumptions do historians make of the big Old Testament characters (Moses, Abraham...)? What assumptions do we make when faced with similar stories from other cultures and religions? At the very least, we should be consistent.
Abram and Moses are purely legendary; Jesus on the other hand is said to have interacted with at least two persons of whom we have an undisputed written historical record: John the Baptist and Pontius Pilate. Additionally Peter/Cephas/Simon bar Jona, said to have been a Jesus companion, is attested by Paul.

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Incidentally, as I understand it, a person can be both HJ and MJ simultaneously. The terms are not mutually exclusive.
d
AFAIUI, that is not how we use the terms on this board, diana. Respectively, HJ and MJ here refer to the belief that Jesus originated in myth or history. Most HJers, including myself, readily accept that most of the accounts of Jesus of Nazareth come from later imagination.

Jiri
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Old 06-05-2007, 09:44 AM   #162
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Hi, Jiri.

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Interesting point.

Is it possible to approach the study without an a priori assumption of some kind? In theory, yes. In reality, the answer seems to be no.
I think, in this case we do not have the luxury of a groundlaying assumption. The gospels assert that Jesus was historical.
Well...that's what I mean. If you accept the gospels as historically accurate, you cannot begin the study without the a priori assumption that Jesus was also historical.

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Abram and Moses are purely legendary;
Purely? Wow. That's quite an assertion.

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Jesus on the other hand is said to have interacted with at least two persons of whom we have an undisputed written historical record: John the Baptist and Pontius Pilate. Additionally Peter/Cephas/Simon bar Jona, said to have been a Jesus companion, is attested by Paul.
JtB is undisputed? This is news to me. Of which record do you speak? I'm not familiar with it.

Additionally, the fact that we have a manuscript which claims Jesus spoke to people we have good reason to believe existed is no reason to assume that therefore, Jesus did also. That's like saying we know Jesus walked on water because archaeologists found a boat that was like the one he went fishing in. The conclusion is too far of a leap from the premise.

Now, if we had a manuscript from Pontius Pilate that says he spoke to Jesus, I'd take that as a perfectly reasonable argument in support of HJ. But we don't have that. We have a document from 115AD written by a man born after Jesus' death (Tacitus) who mentions Christians as an example of Nero's cruelty. While I don't think there's any reasonable dispute concerning the authenticity of the text, there is reasonable dispute concerning the source of this writer's information, and reason to believe there were times he didn't check his facts very closely.

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Incidentally, as I understand it, a person can be both HJ and MJ simultaneously. The terms are not mutually exclusive.
d
AFAIUI, that is not how we use the terms on this board, diana. Respectively, HJ and MJ here refer to the belief that Jesus originated in myth or history. Most HJers, including myself, readily accept that most of the accounts of Jesus of Nazareth come from later imagination.

Jiri
So I've noticed. I do think the assumption that everyone knows what we mean can be confusing to some. It's useful to clarify one's terms from time to time.

d
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Old 06-05-2007, 10:20 AM   #163
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You'll have to toughen up a little.
Well, bud, if you want to splash filth in your page, I don't have to wade through it. Also, such eruptions may indicate who is losing ground, i.e. the one who throws the mud--as the saying goes...

And profanity is not toughness, it's softness, it's in fact a way for people to make waves when they have a lack of substance by way of reply--it's a cop-out. A desire to make weighty pronouncements without having the actual requisite weight.

Yeah, yeah. Speaking of cop-outs I have noted that lots of Fundies try to change the subject when their "sacred stories" are being trashed. Congratulations for continuing the trend.

Meanwhile, modern archaeology continues to undermine your bible, and no amount of hiding your head in the sand will change that.
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Old 06-05-2007, 10:31 AM   #164
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Well...that's what I mean. If you accept the gospels as historically accurate, you cannot begin the study without the a priori assumption that Jesus was also historical.
How do you know which ancient documents are historical and which are not?

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JtB is undisputed? This is news to me. Of which record do you speak? I'm not familiar with it.
Josephus.

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Additionally, the fact that we have a manuscript which claims Jesus spoke to people we have good reason to believe existed is no reason to assume that therefore, Jesus did also. That's like saying we know Jesus walked on water because archaeologists found a boat that was like the one he went fishing in. The conclusion is too far of a leap from the premise.
So then should we start with the a priori assumption that no one did unless...what exactly...is found? For the ancient world, all we have are manuscripts for 99% of the population.

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Now, if we had a manuscript from Pontius Pilate that says he spoke to Jesus, I'd take that as a perfectly reasonable argument in support of HJ.
We do. We have several.

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But we don't have that. We have a document from 115AD written by a man born after Jesus' death (Tacitus) who mentions Christians as an example of Nero's cruelty. While I don't think there's any reasonable dispute concerning the authenticity of the text, there is reasonable dispute concerning the source of this writer's information, and reason to believe there were times he didn't check his facts very closely.
Why? Please be full on your evidence to back this assertion.
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Old 06-05-2007, 10:32 AM   #165
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Dude, chill...

Do you believe in the cosmic Christ as portrayed in the bible? Yes, or no?

Other than that being, any "average Joe" HJ is just made up since there is no discussion of such an animal in any of your "primary sources"... :wave:
To even say such a thing shows your complete ignorance on the topic.
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Old 06-05-2007, 10:47 AM   #166
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I see the analogy you are trying to make, but in reality, we are dealing with an issue that can't be proved in a laboratory, unlike evolution.
This is either hilariously ignorant, or fallacious in its (re)use of an analogy. I don't care which you choose to be - take your pick.

You see, evolution is a fact - certain things in history are facts - like manuscript A says such and such. No one can dispute those things. However, there's also the Theory of Evolution, which is the scientific theory explaining the evolution of species over time. That's akin to the Historical Jesus theory. Neither can be "proved" in a laboratory, but both are merely interpretations of facts and evidence.
You might want to run this by the Ev/Cr forum. You should not throw around terms like "hilariously ignorant" if you sincerely think that the HJ theory has anything close to the evidentiary support as the Theory of Evolution. Evolution can be observed in the record of paleontology and in current laboratories (such as the rapid evolution of the AIDS virus). There are hundreds of thousands of data points which all lead to the conclusion that evolution is the best explanation of the current state of affairs, and there is more data coming in all the time. The HJ theory rests on a few manuscripts which could be the product of novelists or forgers, written in a language which no one today speaks fluently.

The creationists have become very adept in covering up their religious motivations by copying the language of other theories that had at one point been treated as bogus or unproven, but were later proven correct. They like to talk about free speech, avoiding scientific dogma, etc. This is just a smoke screen. They really represent acceptance of dogma over science.
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Old 06-05-2007, 10:48 AM   #167
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There were some here arguing that Luke was incorrect, even. Another argument from silence, again, now in the face of some actual evidence.
No one in this thread has argued that Luke was incorrect in referring to the census conducted under Quirinius.


The point is that the two supposedly "inerrant" gospels which even bother to deal with the nativity contradict each other as to the date and other details . "Matthew" adds in the magi and the 'slaughter of the innocents,' by Herod the Great, but there is no journey to Bethlehem. There is, however, a side trip to Egypt.

"Luke" concocts the journey and the census as being the reason for it, not to mention the non-existent "world-wide decree" of Augustus. There are no magi, no slaughter, no visit to see the pyramids. Instead the new family drops by Jerusalem and then presumably goes back to Nazareth (which in all likelihood did not even exist in the early first century).

Now, in purely verifiable historical fact, Luke has the advantage...1-0...over Matthew as we know that Quirinius took a census and set off a small revolt in the process. However, the rest of it is faith, not history.
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Old 06-05-2007, 10:58 AM   #168
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If you accept the gospels as historically accurate, you cannot begin the study without the a priori assumption that Jesus was also historical.
You don't have to accept the gospels as "historically accurate", you only have recognize that they present prima facie evidence of an historical figure.

MJ arguments procede despite and against that impression while HJ arguments procede accepting it.
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Old 06-05-2007, 11:03 AM   #169
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Yes, and as I said, IIRC all these are contested by Doherty on his website at one place or another. (But thanks for taking the trouble to quote, that's a handy list.)
Just because Doherty contests them doesn't mean anything - Doherty has been shown over and over again that he tortures the Greek language and mangles the Greek philosophy. Even some of Doherty's ardent supporters have acknowledged that he's wrong in some areas.

Finally, it's an argument from authority - you're merely stating that Doherty has contested it, thus we should believe him. Why?

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That's really an unfair characterisation of what I was saying (and of what mythicists say generally, if that's what you mean): what I meant was, "I'm sure there are counter-arguments to these things in Paul (and I vaguely remember Doherty has some), but it's not really my concern to go into that at the moment." Again, remember the context of my post: an outline of the form of the argument from silence as used by mythicists. I'm not proposing my version of mythicism here, but reporting the position as I understand it. (Hence the "So:", but I admit I could have been clearer.)
If you're not willing/able to defend your theory against the evidence I submitted, then why aren't you by default acknowledging that I was right?

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Ooh, I'm cut to the quick! I think I presented the argument from silence as (e.g.) Wells and Doherty use it quite accurately, which was my only concern.
It's still bunk.

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I wasn't aware that all evidence one gives for a position one takes has to be from academic articles
Academic sources are crucial. Anyone can write anything on the internet - that doesn't make it true. Academic sources, especially more modern ones, have a much higher standard than Cosmo magazine.

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The first two articles show (in general, popular form) that an interest in the details (events, gossip, artefacts, etc.) of a celebrity's life are psychological constants - did you even read them? Had I more time I'd dig deeper but actually if you understand the point, you will understand that the first two general articles are quite sufficient to support my argument (i.e. a presentation of the logic of the argument from silence as used by mythicists), and I didn't even need the third (I just put it in because I was sure you would probably ask for something like that) - but the book (that the review is of) does actually (even according to the slightly critical review) support the idea that celebrity was about the same in those days.
You've said nothing of antiquity, nor have you showed that Paul by necessity would have done what you said. Cosmo magazine is not an authority on the ancient world.

Moreover, what Paul was doing was delivering a "sermon" in epistle form - the gospels weren't written - what if that was all he knew? What if he was more interested in Jesus' death and that significance (which he obviously is far more than anything else)? In a world where people believe in the supernatural, wouldn't that be of more concern to him? Paul's struggling with sin - the flesh against the spirit - yet Jesus, born of the flesh, somehow manages to overcome - be killed while he's on earth, and then conquered death. Paul was fascinated by that - he doesn't show much interest in the earthly Jesus because he wasn't as important to him. Remember, Paul is an outsider - he only met the risen Christ as "one untimely born", and he had to convince the "so-called Pillars" that he was legit.

Finally, he states over and over again that his gospel came from Christ, not man. What do you make of that statement? Paul's interested in Christ's soteriological impact, and he says he got his news not from man. He's contrasting himself with James the Brother of the Lord and Cephas and the Pillars and the Twelve, which then we should presume to mean that they got their information from man... While we see a lack of earth-based references in Paul, all our other traditions, early ones like Mark/Q/M/L/Papias etc... suggest that there were earth-based references abound, and in particular is tied to Peter.

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Because the full-on God-man is impossible to prove from the evidence, and the usual story of "obscure preacher deified" doesn't make any sense either.
You know what never made sense to me? That a bowling ball and a baseball fell at the same speed. When I was a child, in third grade or so, we learned that the computer and the baseball would hit the ground at the same time. I always wondered why? Now I understand, having taken physics classes. You, on the other hand, remain skeptical, because you've not learned anything about the classical world, how it operates, and how we interact with it today.

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What does make sense is a mystical religion, like ten-a-penny mystical religions all over the world, with a "founder" retroactively injected, who embodies the central principles, and given biographical details. (You've shown you are somewhat familiar with Daoism, need I go through Buddhism, Hinduism?)
But some mystical religions are founded by real people - how do you personally know which ones are and which ones aren't?

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"Seriously stretch" may be your opinion, it's not the opinion of everybody on this board, and other reviewers.
I'll echo Gooch - show me someone who knows Greek and gives the thumbs up to Doherty. Even Richard Carrier confided in me that he didn't wholly agree with Doherty's use of Greek (though for some reason he still thinks something fishy was going on - though what exactly he never did tell me).

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The point about "face value" is that it comes prior to research - I told you how I came to my opionion of Paul long before I read Doherty. The "face value" of Paul, when I read the letters in my 20s, was that there was something extremely fishy going on, and the overall tone and tenor of Paul's mentions of Jesus was mystical, and seemed to bear little relation to the "Jesus" I was familiar with.
First of all, mysticism and mythicism are two totally different subjects. Also, the proposed reconstruction of the historical Jesus is not the same Jesus that many Christians are familiar with. :huh:

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When I came across Doherty, he seemed to give a good explanation of it. Other people have other aspects (like Wells, Price) that are also interesting. I don't think any of them likely has the full picture, but the main point I was trying to make is that mythicism is certainly plausible, and that the argument from silence as used by mythicists is a logical argument.
History isn't defined by logic - logic is for maths and is found in proofs. The argument from silence is a piece of evidence for something. For what? How is it used? Is it even justified? I don't think so.

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I don't have to do anything Chris, because I'm not presenting an original mythicist argument, I'm just reporting (and was correcting what I felt was a mistaken impression of) mythicist arguments as I understand them.
Sorry, perhaps I should ignore you if you have nothing substantial to say.

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Yes, the mystical Jesus - he's in John too, a bit, and most especially in Thomas. (e.g. "lift up a stone ...." is pure non-dualism) To me, as someone who's had non-dual mystical experiences (unsought for and subsequently confirmed by reading the classics of mysticism), it's kind of obvious (although I agree if I were presenting the idea rigorously I'd have to do something more convincing than just finger the old school tie ).
What's your point?

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For example: at the risk of opening up another can of worms, I think "kata sarka" means roughly the same as "Christ in you"
Have you ever taken a Greek class?
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Old 06-05-2007, 11:05 AM   #170
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I finally want to point out to you, gurugeorge, that much of your testimony has been on what you feel. Do you really think that's valid? What makes you special to have your feelings over anything else?
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