judge

I wasn't replying to Joe Wallack, so your assumption is wrong. Is Joe the only other person in this thread? I dont bother reading every post here. Im free to ignore certain contributors or certain posts if I wish. Maybe I read Joes post but didn't consider it as relevant as you do. Is that OK with you?
If it was possible I'd have you on ignore, but it's not possible (I think cos you are a mod...is that right?)

Toto

Then whose post were you distorting?

judge

I'm distorting general idea that occurs in this thread and the other two threads linked to in this thread. This idea while not always spelled out is implied in many places.

If I wished to distort one particular contributor then I would have quoted them, and then distorted what they said. Instead I chose to distort the general idea, as a way of showing how ridiculous it is.

Toto

You did write "Ok so lets summarise" - so you were implicitly including Joe Wallack in your distortion.

But since your post was a distortion, it only pointed out your misunderstanding, not any problem in the thread.

PhilosopherJay

Hi all,

It seems to me we have two general hypotheses:

1. a) The term "rabbi" (teacher, master, authority, etc.) was not used until after 70 CE and
b) therefore its use in the gospels is anachronistic. It points to a late First century or Second century origin for the gospels.

2. a) The term "rabbi" was in general use before 70 CE and
b) its use was first recorded in the gospels.

I wonder why the term was not translated for Greek readers, but left in its original form? Even if the word was known among Aramaic Jews, why wouldn't the term be translated for Greek speakers. It seems to assume a knowledge of Aramaic that is not assumed elsewhere in the gospels.

Warmly,

Jay Raskin

No Robots

Actually, Mt 23:8 uses both rabbi and the Greek equivalent, didaskalos.

sotto voce

It may assume common knowledge of the habit of Jews calling some of their number teachers. Luke does not use the word. Matthew and Mark may suppose that readers are as familiar with rabbis as they are with synagogues, spread, as they were, over the whole Mediterranean area and to farthest Persia. John translates it, perhaps writing to a wider constituency.

judge

There are other Aramaic words not translated in the gospels.

Aramaic phrases in the Greek New Testament

Duvduv

Maybe it's actually totally irrelevant that English translators have used the word Rabbi as the translation of the Greek unless the Greek is the commonly used term for a Jewish rabbi rather than "master " or "teacher " in general.
Is the use of rabbi by English translators merely an attempt at judaizing the NT environment?

No Robots

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