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Old 02-11-2012, 03:37 AM   #711
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If you don't want to back up the things you say, you don't have to, but I see no reason why I shouldn't point that out.
While some of your questions are cogent, many of your questions in this thread (and others) verge towards an infinite regression. For example the issue of the "1st Century Sources" has been discussed quite frequently in this forum before, and I have not noticed you pointing anything out in these earlier exchanges.
So what? I don't read every thread on this board. You may have said the same things that you're saying in this thread in other threads that I haven't read (I wouldn't know), and what you have to say may have gone unchallenged in those other threads (I wouldn't know). That doesn't do anything to back up your claims. I am reading this thread, I have seen you make claims in this thread, I have seen that you have not backed them up, and I don't see any reason not to point that out.
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Two diametrically opposed positions should have become quite evident to most readers and/or contributors. We may call them positions FOR and AGAINST the claims of historical evidence for the existence of "Christian Origins" in the first century.

The position FOR often uses as evidence the canonical gospels and other items which have been discussed ad nauseum. The position AGAINST often uses as evidence, the NEGATIVE evidence of the omission of mentions (for example in the two thread I referred to above) and other arguments which mitigate the apperance of the canonical gospels (etc) to the 2nd century.

Apart from repeating the above, all I might add at this stage is that both positions are characterized by the hypotheses that both parties FOR and AGAINST the claim associate with the common set of evidence items. Hence the central role of hypotheses at the foundation of various historical theories of Christian Origins.
That may be what you see. I don't know that anybody else sees that. I know that I don't. What I see is you making claims, not backing them up, and trying to obscure this simple point with clouds of rhetorical obfuscation.
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Old 02-11-2012, 06:16 AM   #712
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We see arguments and opposition to the Jesus story in the 2nd century.
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Appearances can sometimes be deceiving.
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Your statement also applies to Eusebius and the Roman Church.
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Yes it does, but it is not restricted to these entities. We have a very peculiar situation. We have two sets of "Ecclesiastical Histories".

The first was authored by a source known as "Eusebius" between 312 and 324 CE for the history of the Christian Church, the authorship and transmission of the canonical NT books from the 1st century to the year 324 CE, immediately prior to the all important Council of Nicaea....
Your reply highlights that "Appearances can sometimes be deceiving".

How do you know or can actually substantiate that "Eusebius" wrote ALL of or any part of Ecclesiastical Histories and that he did so between 312 and 324?

Please explain why the Bishop of Rome between 312 and 324 did NOT write the History of the Roman Church and why "Eusebius" did NOT ever get a single piece of information from the supposed MOST POWERFUL BISHOP of the Roman Empire when he wrote his "Ecclesiastical Histories"?

"Appearances can sometimes be deceiving".

You MUST know that "Eusebius" implied that the TF [Antiquities 18.3.3] was written in the 1st century by Josephus.

Can it possible be that the Roman Church wanted people to BELIEVE "Eusebius" wrote ALL of his "Ecclesiastical Histories" in the 4th century?

Do we have a case of the FORGED FORGERIES called Ecclesiastical Histories?

"Appearances can sometimes be deceiving".
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Old 02-13-2012, 04:31 PM   #713
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How do you know or can actually substantiate that "Eusebius" wrote ALL of or any part of Ecclesiastical Histories and that he did so between 312 and 324?
This date range is the consensus hypothesis relating to the chronology of Eusebius's writing, taken from a fairly large number of scholars who have examined the specific question of the chronology of Eusebius's authorship. Of course, it is still quite possible that these original writings were altered in their transmission from that epoch, later in the 4th or 5th centuries. For example, Eusebius's history seems to appear in the "Apocryphal Writings" listed in the Decretum Gelasianum.



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Please explain why the Bishop of Rome between 312 and 324 did NOT write the History of the Roman Church and why "Eusebius" did NOT ever get a single piece of information from the supposed MOST POWERFUL BISHOP of the Roman Empire when he wrote his "Ecclesiastical Histories"?
Perhaps he did, but it didn't survive. Many histories were written in the 4th and 5th century, but none of them survive except for:

a) Eusebius - his "Ecclesiastical History" (the only surviving one in repect of the period leading up the Council of Nicaea) and

b) Socrates, Sozomenus and Theodoretus the three 5th century orthodox heresiologists's "Ecclesiastical Histories" covering the period from Nicaea to the early 5th century. A fragment of Philip of Sides's history authored in the 5th century might recently be added to these three.



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"Appearances can sometimes be deceiving".
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Old 02-13-2012, 05:37 PM   #714
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How do you know or can actually substantiate that "Eusebius" wrote ALL of or any part of Ecclesiastical Histories and that he did so between 312 and 324?
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Originally Posted by mountainman
This date range is the consensus hypothesis relating to the chronology of Eusebius's writing, taken from a fairly large number of scholars who have examined the specific question of the chronology of Eusebius's authorship. Of course, it is still quite possible that these original writings were altered in their transmission from that epoch, later in the 4th or 5th centuries. For example, Eusebius's history seems to appear in the "Apocryphal Writings" listed in the Decretum Gelasianum.
You seem to be implying that you also AGREE with the consensus hypothesis WITHOUT a shred of credible evidence.

There appears to be serious chronological problems with writings from the Church and massive forgeries.
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Old 02-13-2012, 06:04 PM   #715
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How do you know or can actually substantiate that "Eusebius" wrote ALL of or any part of Ecclesiastical Histories and that he did so between 312 and 324?
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Originally Posted by mountainman
This date range is the consensus hypothesis relating to the chronology of Eusebius's writing, taken from a fairly large number of scholars who have examined the specific question of the chronology of Eusebius's authorship. Of course, it is still quite possible that these original writings were altered in their transmission from that epoch, later in the 4th or 5th centuries. For example, Eusebius's history seems to appear in the "Apocryphal Writings" listed in the Decretum Gelasianum.
You seem to be implying that you also AGREE with the consensus hypothesis WITHOUT a shred of credible evidence.

I have simply stated the consensus position on the chronology of Eusebius's authorship of "Ecclesiastical History". If we can rely on Julian's comment about Eusebius being "wretched", then this would represent evidence for the existence of Eusebius, and his involvement in the composition of a history of the Hebrew sages, who knew about Greek logic. Eusebius's history mentioned in the Decretum Gelasianum (possibly sourced from the 4th century and Damasius) lends support that a history of Eusebius was in circulation in the later 4th century. Of course none of this tells us what this "history" may have contained, or if it was added to, or revised, by the continuators of Eusebius in the subsequent centuries.

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There appears to be serious chronological problems with writings from the Church and massive forgeries.
The hypothesis that the "early church" indulged in pious forgery (about events and people) is not without its merit.
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Old 02-13-2012, 06:42 PM   #716
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How do you know or can actually substantiate that "Eusebius" wrote ALL of or any part of Ecclesiastical Histories and that he did so between 312 and 324?
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Originally Posted by mountainman
This date range is the consensus hypothesis relating to the chronology of Eusebius's writing, taken from a fairly large number of scholars who have examined the specific question of the chronology of Eusebius's authorship. Of course, it is still quite possible that these original writings were altered in their transmission from that epoch, later in the 4th or 5th centuries. For example, Eusebius's history seems to appear in the "Apocryphal Writings" listed in the Decretum Gelasianum.
You seem to be implying that you also AGREE with the consensus hypothesis WITHOUT a shred of credible evidence.

I have simply stated the consensus position on the chronology of Eusebius's authorship of "Ecclesiastical History". If we can rely on Julian's comment about Eusebius being "wretched", then this would represent evidence for the existence of Eusebius, and his involvement in the composition of a history of the Hebrew sages, who knew about Greek logic. Eusebius's history mentioned in the Decretum Gelasianum (possibly sourced from the 4th century and Damasius) lends support that a history of Eusebius was in circulation in the later 4th century. Of course none of this tells us what this "history" may have contained, or if it was added to, or revised, by the continuators of Eusebius in the subsequent centuries...
So are you therefore willing to admit that the charater called Eusebius may have NOT forged the TF and may have NOT written "Church History" or that there was NO Council of Nicea as stated by Church writers since you willingly admit that there were NO Christians in the 2nd century?

Surely, if there were NO Christians in the 2nd century due to fraud and forgeries then perhaps there were NONE in the 4th century for the very same reasons unless you accept Eusebius' "Church History".
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Old 02-13-2012, 07:58 PM   #717
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Surely, if there were NO Christians in the 2nd century due to fraud and forgeries then perhaps there were NONE in the 4th century for the very same reasons unless you accept Eusebius' "Church History".
Emperor Julian wrote three books against them c.361 CE and legally renamed the "Christian" religious cult to the "Galilaean" religious cult. The Nag Hammadi codices and the gJudas indicate the presence of a Gnostic reaction to orthodox christianity. Evidence for canonical christianity in the 4th century includes the earliest Greek codices, thought to be related to the 50 Constantine Bibles. Many Christian basilicas appear over the foundation of pagan temples in the 4th century. The name of christians appear in the law codes. Inscriptions that are unambiguously christian appear in the 4th century.

The hypothesis that christianity did not exist until the 5th century is falsified by the abundant and corroborative evidence of many kinds. Christianity appears to have exploded in the 4th century. The mainstream hypothesis is that there was a long fuse burning through the earlier centuries.
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Old 02-13-2012, 09:15 PM   #718
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The hypothesis that christianity did not exist until the 5th century is falsified by the abundant and corroborative evidence of many kinds. Christianity appears to have exploded in the 4th century. The mainstream hypothesis is that there was a long fuse burning through the earlier centuries.
The evidence does NOT show that Christianity exploded in the 4th century. We know that Christians were operating in Secret associations based on Celsus "True Discourse" since the 2nd century as stated in "Against Celsus".


"Against Celsus"
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The first point which Celsus brings forward, in his desire to throw discredit upon Christianity, is, that the Christians entered into secret associations with each other contrary to law, saying, that “of associations some are public, and that these are in accordance with the laws; others, again, secret, and maintained in violation of the laws.”....
All we had in the 4th century was a Political/Theological change and all people of the Roman Empire were FORCED to worship the Gods of the Already Existing Christians.
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Old 02-13-2012, 10:55 PM   #719
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We know that Christians were operating in Secret associations based on Celsus "True Discourse" since the 2nd century as stated in "Against Celsus".

This knowledge is hypothetical, and far from certain.

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Originally Posted by Arnaldo Momigliano

" ... it is indeed impossible to be certain that Celsus is
fairly represented by the texts Origen quotes to refute him."




p.148

ON PAGANS, JEWS, and CHRISTIANS (or via: amazon.co.uk)

--- Arnaldo Momigliano, 1987



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All we had in the 4th century was a Political/Theological change and all people of the Roman Empire were FORCED to worship the Gods of the Already Existing Christians
It was a REVOLUTION. It was enforced by the sword.
It exploited the high technology of codex manufacture.
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Old 02-14-2012, 07:53 AM   #720
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We know that Christians were operating in Secret associations based on Celsus "True Discourse" since the 2nd century as stated in "Against Celsus".

This knowledge is hypothetical, and far from certain.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Arnaldo Momigliano

" ... it is indeed impossible to be certain that Celsus is
fairly represented by the texts Origen quotes to refute him."
Well, based on your view, you must therefore also admit "it is impossible to be certain" that Eusebius is fairly represented by the texts attributed to him.

Again, based on your position, You must also admit that "it is impossible to be certain" that Julian is fairly represented by texts attributed to him.

If one adopts a position that it is impossible to ascertain fair representation of any texts then what is the point of attempting to resolve any matter relating to the history of Christianity?

Please STATE the authors of antiquity whose texts were fairly represented.
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