Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
02-24-2009, 02:35 PM | #31 | |||||||
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
|
Quote:
Quote:
The NT presents "new christian delegates" going out into the nations of the gentiles (ie: Greeks) and jews in order to convert these nations, to another superior nation of monotheistic belief. Early christianity apparently captured the imagination of thousands and thousands of followers, at some stage during the "early christian origins" period. If the reader of the NT is not already christian, then let's assume they are either Jewish or "Gentile". Perhaps the term "gentile" might also be applied to travelling Indian merchants (eg: AThomas). When a non-christian prospective convert reads the NT they are surprised to find that "christianity" is not a religion like their own. What is it like? Well, it is certainly nothing like the jews or the gentile religion. This seems clear enough from the 90 references above. Quote:
Quote:
The implication is that at one point (BCE) we start with "gentiles" and "jews" and then lo and behold we now have "gentiles" and "jews" and "christians". The story of the NT was preserved by this third-in-line religious group, which everyone conjectures expanded over the course of the centuries, until by a great stroke of pure luck and fortune, the religion was embraced by Constantine who raised it to become the official state Roman religion. I am investigating to what extent the gentiles (and Jews) of the NT represent christian otherness: Quote:
|
|||||||
02-24-2009, 03:09 PM | #32 |
Contributor
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
|
But Christians did not view Jews and gentiles as other, but as potential converts (at least until the Jews were demonized as Christ killers, but even then there was the possibility of conversion.) I don't think you quite understand what is going on here.
|
02-24-2009, 03:46 PM | #33 | ||
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
|
Quote:
I find that the term "gentiles" is used by these NT authors as a framework for "otherness" against which the concept of the "emergent christian nation" is contrasted. As more and more "gentiles" converted to "christianity" there were more christians and less "gentiles". Quote:
Just as a matter of interest, do you happen to think that anyone quite understands what is going on with the actual ancient history associated with the authorship and transmission of the new testament literature to the fourth century and the waiting arms of the monotheist Roman State Officialdom? I look at the assessment of scholarship on the century of authorship of the NT and I clearly see no consensus. Who really understands which century? You tell me. Over. |
||
02-24-2009, 11:52 PM | #34 | |
Regular Member
Join Date: Nov 2008
Location: CA, USA
Posts: 202
|
Quote:
There was another driver too - to be Jewish no longer meant Philo and Septuagint. It meant Rabbi's and Hebrew. Christianity leapt apart and was let go. |
|
02-25-2009, 03:35 AM | #35 | ||
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
|
Quote:
Quote:
Does the NT provide any evidence of mass movements and conversions from "the gentiles" (etc) to "the christians" in the early period before the fourth century? Or do we rely upon Eusebius for this? The "early christian population demographics generally bandied around are usually significant. I wonder whether the new testament sold itself to the "gentiles" or whether it was the magnetic personalities of the "early christian practitioners" who ended up attracting converts from the gentiles (and/or Jews)? Does the NT literature itself tend to compel readers to "convert" from being a "stranger" to christianity, into becoming a "christian"? Was it written with this function in mind? |
||
02-25-2009, 04:20 AM | #36 |
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
|
experimental substitution of "pagan" for "gentile" in the NT
Substituting the term "pagan" for "gentile
We all know there were no pagans before the fourth century, because the term appears to have been invented by christians of that epoch to describe those people surrounding them in the Roman empire who were not "christian". The "pagans" were the "christian other" from the fourth century onwards, in a similar sense that the term "gentiles" is presented as a description for a group of people "other than christians" by the authors of the NT. In post #10 I listed out the 90 odd references to "gentiles" in the NT. The following list presents the same 90 references from the NT, but I have replaced the term "gentile(s)" with the term "pagan(s)". Would anyone like to comment on whether the underlying meaning of the new testament is altered at all by this super-global-replacement?
Does this substitution change anything significant? If so, what does it change? |
02-25-2009, 05:23 AM | #37 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jul 2008
Location: Location: eastern North America
Posts: 1,468
|
Quote:
With regard to "Gentiles", versus "heathen", versus "pagans", are we not perhaps confounding religious dogma with ethnicity, or more properly, ethnic hostilities? To me, without knowing the true etymological distinctions, "Pagan" suggests someone non-religious yet Caucasian, though probably not a member of the Semitic tribes. Gentile implies Caucasian, and religious, but not Jewish, nor a follower of Judaism, and "heathen" implies neither Caucasian, nor accordingly, religious, since only Caucasians were imagined as capable of becoming followers of Judaism--> Christianity. Is there any evidence for Judaism among the non-Caucasian Africans prior to the capture of Jerusalem by the Babylonians? |
|
02-25-2009, 09:22 AM | #38 | |
Regular Member
Join Date: Nov 2008
Location: CA, USA
Posts: 202
|
Quote:
Gentile for ethnos: did introduce a greater sense of outsider - gentiles were not just nations but other nations. Heathen for ethnos: you read that "heathen" came from the same sense as "pagan", country or heath dwellers, the hangers-on and was coined for a Gothic bible, a translation that post dates Constantine. As the fourth century progresses, to be other than the Christian nation is not just different or even outside but definitively negative. Pagan/heathen are pejorative. The road from ethnos to heathen goes from the plural "nations" to a singular "other". How anything not Christian is its exact opposite, rather than the many different ways faced by the Jews. The other word worth considering is "Jew". Who was a Jew? Late fourth century, it a was Rabbi-following, Septuagint rejector. But go back and you have figures as distinct as Jesus and Philo. The sense of "Christian" as absolutely not Jewish in a broad sense also crystallizes in the fourth century. The four gospels clearly speak to Septuagint believers. A "true gentile" wouldn't understand their arguments or resonance with older texts. And the notion of "convert the nations" etc. isn't new to the Christian sect. Other Judaisms grew through conversion and continued to but given the nature of their arguments, it's likely to be a conversion from one to another rather than of any "true outsider". |
|
02-25-2009, 10:44 AM | #39 | ||
Contributor
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
|
Quote:
Quote:
And you completely misunderstand the whole idea of the other. If defining someone as the Other is part of your self-definition, you can't try to convert them - because then you would lose that part of your self definition. But Christians were always trying to convert other people. |
||
02-25-2009, 06:12 PM | #40 | |||||
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2006
Location: Falls Creek, Oz.
Posts: 11,192
|
Quote:
Do we know in fact whether the NT was written either by "Jews", or by "Gentiles" or by "Christians"? Dont we make the assumption it was written by "christians" who are no longer "jews" and who had a mission to convert the "jews" and the "gentiles" to renounce their previous erroneous philosophy, mathematics, science, geometry, metaphysics, logic, tradition, customs and and "RELIGION" to become the proverbial "chrestos" christians. Quote:
Quote:
When people argue about "early christianity" I think they need to be sure they are talking about either the first three centuries, or the fourth century and after, since the political conditions were different in those two separate epochs. As a matter of interest, in the following pages of the above book the author goes on to state the following, which is very relevant. Quote:
Best wishes, Pete |
|||||
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|