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Old 07-12-2011, 09:48 PM   #181
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...In any case, I was just having fun with aa because I know full well from previous correspondence that he never ever ever backs down on his myopic viewpoints.
What you say appears to be ILLOGICAL.

You want to have fun with the wrong guy.

I don't play games with TedM.

Now, please review my request.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
...Well, just tell me who said they saw Jesus of Nazareth anywhere on earth while he was alive and I may believe part of the stories...
You must know I would have investigated your claims for credibility and that I don't play games with what you say.

In my investigation it has been brought to my attention that John 21 may be a forgery and may have been written sometime after Tertullian's "Against Praxeas" or sometime AFTER the end of the 2nd century.

Again based on my investigation, it is reported that John the disciple of Jesus DIED 100 years earlier or at around the end of the 1st century.

Now Examine Tertullian's "Against Praxeas" 25
Quote:
...Wherefore also does this Gospel, at its very termination, intimate that these things were ever written, if it be not, to use its own words, that you might believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God?....
Tertullian in "Against Praxeas" 25 is referring to the very LAST verse of John 20.31.

John 20:31 -
Quote:
But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God,......
Many, many books are attributed to Tertullian and he did NOT use John 21 in any of them.

TedM, you seem to have presented a whole chapter, John 21, which was forged at least one hundred years after the supposed death of the assumed disciple called John.

I don't accept forgeries or questionable sources as credible evidence .

You want to have fun with the wrong man.

Perhaps you can play with the evidence from antiquity. Have fun.

The HJ theory is a Logical Fallacy.
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Old 07-12-2011, 09:53 PM   #182
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Even if what you say is true, it is not logically necessarily true, and there is nothing necessarily fallacious about taking a different position
I suppose, (but I am not certain) that you are trying your best to guide us (or at least, those of us who need guidance!) to comprehend the distinction between (intentionally) "illogical", and "logically fallacious".

Logicians study patterns of reasoning. A logical fallacy is a pattern of reasoning in which the conclusion--the final point in the chain--is not properly supported by the chain from starting point. Logicians have identified and analysed many different kinds of logical fallacy. What defines something as an instance of fallacious reasoning, and more specifically as an instance of a particular kind of fallacy, is not the truth or falsehood of the conclusion (the conclusion of a piece of fallacious reasoning may be true or false), and not the truth or falsehood of the statements which form the starting point (the starting point from which a piece of fallacious reasoning begins may be true or false), but the pattern of connection in between.

Does that help at all?

There is no requirement for anyone in this forum (or elsewhere) to adher to the formalised and restricted definition that formalised logic places on the meaning of this term such that you have been demanding ad nauseam of aa5874. See the bolded disclaimer.

Logical fallacy

Quote:

In philosophy, the term logical fallacy properly refers to a formal fallacy—a flaw in the structure of a deductive argument, which renders the argument invalid.

However, it is often used more generally in informal discourse to mean an argument that is problematic for any reason, and thus encompasses informal fallacies as well as formal fallacies—valid but unsound claims or poor non-deductive argumentation.
aa5874 referred more than once, specifically, to the fallacy of false dichotomy, but has never once shown the presence of the defining elements of that fallacy in anything anybody has actually said on the subject at hand.

aa5874 has never said that the reference to 'false dichotomy' was incorrect and that the word 'fallacy' was only being used in the vaguer or more general sense of 'error'. In a narrower sense, 'fallacy' is not synonymous with 'error'. I will continue to assume that the word is being used in a narrower sense until aa5874 says that, despite the specific earlier references to 'false dichotomy', this is not the case.
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Old 07-12-2011, 09:54 PM   #183
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In any case, I was just having fun with aa because I know full well from previous correspondence that he never ever ever backs down on his myopic viewpoints.
Hey TedM,

When one is in the process of debunking the myopic viewpoints of religious apologists from first principles, the postulates need to be selected carefully because you will always be running with them. In this case, it is the postulate of the historical jesus which is being debunked, since this postulate itself is a logical fallacy with respect to the evidence available to support it. All the various types of Historical Jesus theories - the spectrum of them - are reliant upon the HJ postulate.

Best wishes


Pete
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Old 07-12-2011, 10:04 PM   #184
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Originally Posted by TedM View Post
...In any case, I was just having fun with aa because I know full well from previous correspondence that he never ever ever backs down on his myopic viewpoints.
What you say appears to be ILLOGICAL.

You want to have fun with the wrong guy.

I don't play games with TedM.
AA, I am fairly convinced that you are dead serious here, but you really might benefit from lightening up. Life is short.


Quote:
In my investigation it has been brought to my attention that John 21 may be a forgery
Sure, I fully expected you to point this out, and I'm not interested in it. Nevertheless, you didn't say your stated criteria was insufficient upfront, so I have nothing to back down on.

Quote:
TedM, you seem to have presented a whole chapter, John 21, which was forged at least one hundred years after the supposed death of the assumed disciple called John.
Just giving what you asked for..

Quote:
I don't accept forgeries or questionable sources as credible evidence .
little late


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You want to have fun with the wrong man.
Well, I still enjoyed it. A little. I feel a little guilty too though because I don't like to upset people, even you aa.


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The HJ theory is a Logical Fallacy.
Ah, thanks again! I can always count on you to be dogmatic. Take care and remember not to take yourself too seriously. No human is perfect, right? You've said so yourself.
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Old 07-12-2011, 10:34 PM   #185
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For the sake of clarity, let us look at the term "Historical Jesus".

See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_Jesus

Quote:
The term historical Jesus refers to scholarly reconstructions of the 1st-century figure Jesus of Nazareth.

[1] These reconstructions are based upon historical methods including critical analysis of gospel texts as the primary source for his biography, along with consideration of the historical and cultural context in which he lived.....
Well, let us now examine the BIOGRAPHY of Jesus of Nazareth in the NT and see if it is LOGICAL to presume Jesus of Nazareth was a man.

Examine Matthew 1.18-20.

Matthew 1:18-20 -
Quote:
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise.... his mother...... was found with child of the Holy Ghost. 19 Then Joseph .... was minded to put her away privily. 20 But...... the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying.... that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost....and ..... call his name JESUS
So, the PRIMARY sources the Gospels, described Jesus as the Child of a Holy Ghost.

It is ILLOGICAL to use the description of Pilate the Governor to describe Tiberius the Caesar in the NT.

It is ILLOGICAL to use the description of Caiaphas the High Priest to describe John the Baptist in the NT.

It is ILLOGICAL to use the BIOGRAPHY of the Child of a Holy Ghost in the NT for the Biography of a Man NOT found in the NT.

It is SIMPLY Logical that Scholars should have used EXTERNAL CREDIBLE sources of antiquity for HJ and NOT the biography of a Ghost as their PRIMARY source or events in Ghost stories where the Ghost walked on water, transfigured, resurrected and ascended in a cloud.

The HJ theory is a logical fallacy.
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Old 07-12-2011, 11:26 PM   #186
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The HJ theory is a logical fallacy.
If the HJ postulate is not supported by the evidence, then we need to find another postulate.
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Old 07-12-2011, 11:32 PM   #187
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In any case, I was just having fun with aa because I know full well from previous correspondence that he never ever ever backs down on his myopic viewpoints.
Hey TedM,

When one is in the process of debunking the myopic viewpoints of religious apologists from first principles, the postulates need to be selected carefully because you will always be running with them. In this case, it is the postulate of the historical jesus which is being debunked, since this postulate itself is a logical fallacy with respect to the evidence available to support it. All the various types of Historical Jesus theories - the spectrum of them - are reliant upon the HJ postulate.

Best wishes


Pete
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The HJ theory is a logical fallacy.
If the HJ postulate is not supported by the evidence, then we need to find another postulate.
What definition of 'postulate' are you using?
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Old 07-12-2011, 11:37 PM   #188
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
For the sake of clarity, let us look at the term "Historical Jesus".

See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_Jesus

Quote:
The term historical Jesus refers to scholarly reconstructions of the 1st-century figure Jesus of Nazareth.

[1] These reconstructions are based upon historical methods including critical analysis of gospel texts as the primary source for his biography, along with consideration of the historical and cultural context in which he lived.....
Well, let us now examine the BIOGRAPHY of Jesus of Nazareth in the NT and see if it is LOGICAL to presume Jesus of Nazareth was a man.

Examine Matthew 1.18-20.

Matthew 1:18-20 -
Quote:
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise.... his mother...... was found with child of the Holy Ghost. 19 Then Joseph .... was minded to put her away privily. 20 But...... the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying.... that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost....and ..... call his name JESUS
So, the PRIMARY sources the Gospels, described Jesus as the Child of a Holy Ghost.

It is ILLOGICAL to use the description of Pilate the Governor to describe Tiberius the Caesar in the NT.

It is ILLOGICAL to use the description of Caiaphas the High Priest to describe John the Baptist in the NT.

It is ILLOGICAL to use the BIOGRAPHY of the Child of a Holy Ghost in the NT for the Biography of a Man NOT found in the NT.
Logical or illogical, NOBODY has used the BIOGRAPHY of the child of a Holy Ghost in the NT for the BIOGRAPHY of a man NOT found in the NT.
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post

It is SIMPLY Logical that Scholars should have used EXTERNAL CREDIBLE sources of antiquity for HJ and NOT the biography of a Ghost as their PRIMARY source or events in Ghost stories where the Ghost walked on water, transfigured, resurrected and ascended in a cloud.

The HJ theory is a logical fallacy.
There is no LOGICAL FALLACY in considering the LOGICAL POSSIBILITY that SOME of the statements in the NT are FALSE while OTHERS are TRUE.
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Old 07-13-2011, 03:44 AM   #189
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The HJ theory is a logical fallacy.
If the HJ postulate is not supported by the evidence, then we need to find another postulate.
What definition of 'postulate' are you using?
Just the general everyday version.

Quote:
Originally Posted by WIKI

In traditional logic, an axiom or postulate is a proposition that is not proved or demonstrated but considered to be either self-evident, or subject to necessary decision. That is to say, an axiom is a logical statement that is assumed to be true. Therefore, its truth is taken for granted, and serves as a starting point for deducing and inferring other (theory dependent) truths.
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Old 07-13-2011, 05:19 AM   #190
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The HJ theory is a logical fallacy.
If the HJ postulate is not supported by the evidence, then we need to find another postulate.
What definition of 'postulate' are you using?
Just the general everyday version.

Quote:
Originally Posted by WIKI

In traditional logic, an axiom or postulate is a proposition that is not proved or demonstrated but considered to be either self-evident, or subject to necessary decision. That is to say, an axiom is a logical statement that is assumed to be true. Therefore, its truth is taken for granted, and serves as a starting point for deducing and inferring other (theory dependent) truths.
If a postulate is by definition something whose truth is taken for granted, then it is irrelevant whether it is supported by evidence or not.
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