FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 08-10-2005, 12:59 PM   #41
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2005
Location: USA
Posts: 1,307
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by yalla
I'm back. Glutton for punishment?
I've been reading Irenaeus re the 10000 vines stuff "Adv Her V 33 3-4."
Certainly looks like 2 Baruch 29. 5-8 to me.
Yes, but the Irenaeus quotation from Papias includes material that is older than 2 Baruch and missing from 2 Baruch (e.g. the simile of the wheat, which is attested in a more primitive form in 1 Enoch 10.19). Thus, Papias could not have derived the wheat portion from 2 Baruch.

Rather, both the Papias agraphon and 2 Baruch would ultimately derive from an apocalyptic midrash on Gen 27:28. Another element of the midrash missing from 2 Baruch but present in the Papias is a word-play linkage with Gen 49:12 (also attested in R. Dimi, b Ketub 111b). These midrashic features use Hebrew puns and are almost certainly beyond the competence of the Gentiles Papias and Irenaeus.

Quote:
Originally Posted by yalla
So that is what his reference to the the fourth book of Papias is concerning.
Now I thought that he got his "Papias knew John" from the fourth book. And nobody corrected my misunderstanding.
Sorry, I didn't pick up on your misunderstanding, but I'll simply note that it may have come from reading that portion of Irenaeus which Eusebius quoted out of context!

Quote:
Originally Posted by yalla
Now stuck in the middle of this is the reference to Papias "..the hearer of John.."

There is no indication that it came from any particular place.
It is not indicated that it came from the fourth book of Papias.

So why is there speculation that it came from anywhere else other than where Eusebius says it came from ie the preface?
Actually, Eusebius's claim is more like Irenaeus overlooked the preface:

Quote:
2 So wrote Irenaeus. Yet Papias himself, according to the preface of his volumes, in no way presents himself to have been a listener and eyewitness of the holy apostles, but teaches that he had received the articles of the faith from those who had known them, for he speaks as follows:

...

7 And the Papias being explained now admits that he had received the words of the apostles from those who followed them, and declares that he was an ear-witness of Aristion and the presbyter John. At any rate, he hands down their traditions in his treatises, often mentioning them by name.
What's interesting is that Eusebius understood the preface to mean that he was an ear-witness of Aristion and the presbyter John and observed that Papias often mentioned them by name. The preface is not the only part in Papias that mentioned John. Even Eusebius admitted that.

Quote:
Originally Posted by yalla
On what basis has it been stated that Eusebius is misquoting Papias to contradict Irenaeus by manufacturing a false quote and not citing something else.
I didn't state that Eusebius manufactured a false quote, only that we don't have have the full context of his quote to argue informedly from what Papias did not say in it.

Quote:
Originally Posted by yalla
Is there any evidence that the preface of Papias is NOT the source of Irenaeus claiming Papias knew John?
Apart from what I just discussed, Irenaeus also stated that Papias was a colleague of Polycarp. That information did not come from the portion of the preface that Eusebius quoted.

Stephen
S.C.Carlson is offline  
Old 08-10-2005, 01:09 PM   #42
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2005
Location: USA
Posts: 1,307
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
However one should probably avoid multiplying Johns without necessity and there is really very little evidence for a late 1st century CE 'John the presbyter or elder' distinct from John the son of Zebedee.
I believe the evidence for it is pretty much limited to Eusebius's reading of the bit of Papias he quoted.
S.C.Carlson is offline  
Old 08-10-2005, 01:18 PM   #43
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2003
Location: Texas
Posts: 932
Default

Mr. Pearse

So why cite P52 as some basis for your earlier argument if you disavow it now? You are the one that brought it up.

And please advise which facts I have mistakenly stated (other than giving credence to the potentially incorrection notion that it might be as early as 125 CE)?

Please ref: the companion thread on P52
gregor is offline  
Old 08-10-2005, 01:49 PM   #44
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: England
Posts: 5,629
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by gregor
Mr. Pearse

How can the discovery of a scrap of paper containing a few verses (portions of seven sentences, IIRC) that can be dated from 125 to as late as 175 CE that bears language that is similar to what we now call John (i.e. p52) establish:

1. P52 was written by a disciple
2. The gospel now called "John" was written by a disciple
or
2. The complete gospel of John from 350 CE was in remotely the same form as what existed in 150 CE
It doesn't , as Roger would say if he consulted a professional on the matter.
Steven Carr is offline  
Old 08-10-2005, 01:52 PM   #45
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: England
Posts: 5,629
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
There is a problem about precisely what Papias said concerning the death of Judas. IMS Some of the ancient citations have more lurid details than others.

In any case I see no reason to doubt that Papias records ancient tradition here although I doubt if it has any historical value.
Is there any uncertainty about what Papias said about (apostle/elder/) John?

John was a very common name...... Every Tom, Dick and Harry was called John in those days.
Steven Carr is offline  
Old 08-11-2005, 11:58 AM   #46
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: Birmingham UK
Posts: 4,876
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Carr
Is there any uncertainty about what Papias said about (apostle/elder/) John?

John was a very common name...... Every Tom, Dick and Harry was called John in those days.
There is obviously uncertainty. (As I noted in another post in this thread)

The most we can hope for is to determine the most probable answer.

Andrew Criddle
andrewcriddle is offline  
Old 08-11-2005, 08:49 PM   #47
Banned
 
Join Date: Jun 2005
Location: Florida
Posts: 19,796
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Carr
Is there any uncertainty about what Papias said about (apostle/elder/) John?

John was a very common name...... Every Tom, Dick and Harry was called John in those days.
Quote:
Originally Posted by AndrewCriddle
There is obviously uncertainty. (As I noted in another post in this thread)

The most we can hope for is to determine the most probable answer.
What is most probable is a matter of persepctive, Andrew. I find it to be very improbable that God would wait around for countless trillions of years before he finally got the notion that he wanted to create humans, and that he would cause a global flood in order to get rid of evil humans instead of simply killing them like he killed all fo the first born males in Egypt, and that is just for openers.

What is not improbable at all is that humans like to dream up religions in order to satisfy their desire for immortality, and not just any old immortality, but quite conveniently an immortality in comfort. The goal of Christians is to obtain a comfortable eternal life, and although they are not aware of it at this time, ultimately they couldn't care less who provides them with a comfortable eternal life as long as it is available. Any of a number of means of achieving it would be deemed equally acceptable. For example, if all that God required was a heartfelt "I am sorry for my sins," without any mention of the shed blood of Jesus, that would be perfectly acceptable as long as a comfortable eternal life is available. Similarly, if you have cancer, you couldn't care less who provides you with a cure as long as a cure is available. Truly, as far as religious minded people are concerned, all roads lead to comfort completely irregardless of who provides it. In other words, comfort is the common denomiator in religions, not who provides it. If humans were able to achieve all of their desires for comfort on their own, including perceived immortality, almost no one would be religious, probably even including you, Andrew.
Johnny Skeptic is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 05:12 AM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.