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Old 03-06-2007, 10:21 AM   #91
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post
And there it is. You say that belief in a material world that is not the earth, a world into which a savior god can descend to die, is common among certain ancient groups. I ask which groups these are, and for evidence that they believed such a thing. You say that the evidence is right in front of my face, and proceed to give me a lengthy quotation from a text that has nothing to do with a material world that is not the earth. I point this inconvenient little fact out, and you say that it is not inconceivable that ancient people could have imagined such things.
I went back over what I actually said. You are changing my words and claiming I said things I did not. Guess I need to pay a little more attention:

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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon View Post
That Christ didn't start off as a "mystical heavenly allegory", but as a god who descended into the world of matter (without reaching earth) where he was crucified, buried and resurrected, and then ascended back to heaven.

According to Doherty, this kind of belief was fairly standard throughout the Roman world. If Papias can be believed - and/or Tacitus as well for that matter -- then it presents a very small window for Paul mythicism to turn to historicism, esp in a world where a Doherty-Pauline belief was supposed to be fairly standard.


Not really, and I often think Doherty has somewhat overstated the pervasiveness of this belief among the general public in the Roman Empire. Among philosophers and religious mystics it does seem quite common, as evidenced by the persistence of gnostic beliefs into the 2nd and 3rd centuries.
I did not say "groups." That's your word, and I should have realized and called you on it earlier. I said "philosophers and religious mystics."

I do apologize for a not being rigorously clear in my meaning, since you imputed a different meaning into what I said and then demanded evidence for that. What I was trying to say to G'Don was that the general view of a lower heaven that is more earthlike than the upper heavens, of descending beings who can change in form, of regions where gods can "die" and return to life, etc., was clearly held by many philosophers and religious mystics in the ancient world (that writings about these things survived suggests to me that more than a few people believed them). I really don't know if "quite common" is the best way to put it or not--note that I qualified even that with "seems." I am sure you will accuse me of "backpedaling" here, but I'm guilty of nothing more than imprecision in a forum posting.

The way you jump on me for saying it's "hardly inconceivable" for ancient peoples to imagine a divine being descending to an earthlike lower heaven and being put to death there is completely unwarranted. Jesus mythicists are not proposing anything unthinkable or outrageous. This is not in any sense a gigantic leap from things peoples of that time already believed--progressively more Earth-like levels of heaven, heavenly intermediaries, descending redeemers, (who descend to Sheol, not to Earth), Earth-like things happening in the aer, dying/rising gods, things on Earth having heavenly copies and vice-versa. Do we have step-by-step documentation about how various separate beliefs got combined and synthesized into a new belief system? No. No outside observer made note of it as it happened. Nobody at that time wrote an objective thesis on "The Genesis and Evolution of Pauline Christianity from Pagan and Jewish Source Beliefs and Philosophies ," and religious types aren't exactly known for admitting anything but purely divine origins for their convictions. (Greek philosophers claimed to come by their beliefs through pure reason, but they still came up with some whoppers.) We don't know exactly how Judaism proceeded from polytheism to monotheism either.

What historicists would have us believe is that some Jewish man of whom we know very little, who was executed by the Romans for fomenting insurrection (since it's unlikely the Romans would have agreed to execute someone for blasphemy against the Jewish religion) was almost immediately claimed by his followers, and by Paul who never met him, to be the incarnate Son of God, with a vast elaborate pre-existing (although not unified) mythology draped around his shoulders. Yet until "Mark," they seem to show no interest in the earthly life of this Jesus, other than the bare facts that he established a sacred meal on the "night" he was "given up" and that he was crucified, died, was buried, and was resurrected. Stuff that's hardly unique in ancient world-belief, other than the manner of execution (but then Attis being castrated by a bull is pretty unique too, no?). Not even when Paul argues against those who preached an uncrucified Christ does he attempt to justify his belief that the crucified man Jesus was the Christ. Not even when he attempts to strengthen new converts in their faith does he refer to Jesus in anything but scriptural terms. None of them had any doubts that this crucified man Jesus was really the Christ? Why him and not someone else? You'd think there would be others going around claiming that their crucified guy was the Christ, but instead we have people saying the Christ wasn't crucified at all.

On the other hand, this reaction is pretty much what you'd expect it to be if Paul believed in a descending heavenly intermediary similar to what others believed in, but (as the Jerusalem group did) added the bit that when the Christ entered the firmament, he was put to death by the demon spirits; again, hardly a brand-new concept in ancient-world belief, but apparently rejected by some adherents of Christ mythology. The belief that the Christ (or variously Logos, or personified Wisdom, or Sophia, not that these all necessarily mean exactly the same thing, although the author of John clearly equates Logos with Christ) saved by imparting spiritual wisdom endured into the second and third centuries.
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Old 03-06-2007, 10:44 AM   #92
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I did not say "groups." That's your word, and I should have realized and called you on it earlier. I said "philosophers and religious mystics."
Are philosophers and religious mystics the same thing? If not, then you are talking about (at least) two groups.

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Originally Posted by Gregg, emphasis mine
What I was trying to say to G'Don was that the general view of a lower heaven that is more earthlike than the upper heavens, of descending beings who can change in form, of regions where gods can "die" and return to life, etc., was clearly held by many philosophers and religious mystics in the ancient world (that writings about these things survived suggests to me that more than a few people believed them).
Regions where gods can die and then return to life. All the regions of which I am aware where this was seen as happening are on the earth. Simple question: Are there other regions, not on earth, where this can happen, according to ancient thought of the relevant time period? Yes or no? If yes, what is your evidence? If no, then you and I probably agree that Doherty is working beyond the constraints of evidence (that is, speculating).

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I really don't know if "quite common" is the best way to put it or not....
I would be happy with evidence of one or two people who thought that there was a material world, not earth, where gods could descend to die and so forth.

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The way you jump on me for saying it's "hardly inconceivable" for ancient peoples to imagine a divine being descending to an earthlike lower heaven and being put to death there is completely unwarranted.
You are clearly able to conceive of it, as am I, so sure, it is hardly inconceivable. I agree with you.

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Jesus mythicists are not proposing anything unthinkable or outrageous.
You are right. Everything you have proposed is certainly possible.

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...religious types aren't exactly known for admitting anything but purely divine origins for their convictions.
I care not at this stage whence religious pagans claimed their ideas had come. I am seeking evidence that they had the ideas you claim in the first place. We agree that they could have. Did they? Show me the evidence, regardless of whence they claimed the ideas originated.

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What historicists would have us believe is....
...irrelevant here. Let us assume for the sake of argument that the historicists are wrong; there was no historical Jesus. You are still making claims that can be tested against the available evidence. Did (any) pagans hold the views you are imputing to them? A mythicist like Wells has no need to argue that there was believed to be a material world not earth. A mythicist like yourself depends on it. Assuming that historicism is wrong, please help me decide between your brand of mythicism and that of Wells by producing evidence for your view.

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Not even when Paul argues against those who preached an uncrucified Christ....
I asked you before about this. What is your reference?

Ben.
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Old 03-06-2007, 10:56 AM   #93
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Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson View Post
The problem is that, if you had meant "gossip," you didn't say what you meant but tarted it up by calling it "hearsay" instead.
Outside of a courtroom, the words are synonyms.

As interesting as this semantic tangent has been, could it be that only those who use the term in a technical sense as part of their job/training were confused by it?
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Old 03-06-2007, 11:48 AM   #94
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Outside of a courtroom, the words are synonyms.
Few words are completely synonymous; almost always there's always some differences in connotation. "Gossip" has the connotation of "talk of a personal, sensational, or intimate nature"; "hearsay" doesn't have that connotation.

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As interesting as this semantic tangent has been, could it be that only those who use the term in a technical sense as part of their job/training were confused by it?
No, as far as I can tell, spin has no legal training, yet he was confused.

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Old 03-06-2007, 12:27 PM   #95
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13 View Post
Outside of a courtroom, the words are synonyms.

As interesting as this semantic tangent has been, could it be that only those who use the term in a technical sense as part of their job/training were confused by it?
I am afraid that it was I who intoduced the concept of hearsay, and was responible for the mispelling "heresay." Man, is my face red. I would link to the message, but I can't find it now, too many Papias threads!)

My bad, so please don't blame spin.

On the other hand, I did ask for Stephen's professional opinion and was grateful when he obliged. Many thanks.

Jake Jones IV
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Old 03-06-2007, 12:51 PM   #96
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13 View Post
Outside of a courtroom, the words are synonyms.

As interesting as this semantic tangent has been, could it be that only those who use the term in a technical sense as part of their job/training were confused by it?
Seems more likely that spin was trying to use a technical term to jazz up an otherwise untenable argument. Namely, the fact that an historical text involves facts conveyed to an author by a witness, rather than the author having experienced those facts "firsthand" is no criticism at all given that 99.99% of our historical texts involve authors who are dead and can't therefore be questioned any more than the witnesses who transmitted the facts to an author. The relationship of the author to the witness is exactly the relationship of the text to the dead author. Spin wants to valorize the latter, but criticize the former, which doesn't make sense.

Doesn't matter what you call it, it raises the same evidentiary problems (hence the reason the hearsay rule applies to both in formal trials).
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Old 03-06-2007, 01:07 PM   #97
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Hi Gamera,

This is a good reply. Some authors are more biased than others, and we need to take the author's bias, if any, into account when evaluating their claims. For example, Eusubius tells that he is writing for a purpose, "It is my purpose to write an account of the successions of the holy apostles," Church History I.1.1. OK, that is revelaling. The authority of the Roman church depends on apotolic sucession, and he intends to build that up.

Eusubius also states a second purpose. "It is my purpose also to give the names and number and times of those who through love of innovation have run into the greatest errors, and, proclaiming themselves discoverers of knowledge falsely so-called have like fierce wolves unmercifully devastated the flock of Christ." That is also revealing. He will oppose the heretics (specifically gnotics), and he has a purpose; to save the flock of Christ from devestation.

Given such stated purposes and strong motivation, we are justified in using caution when evaluating claims that Eusubius puts forward to support apostolic succession, and Papias is a prime example.

As for Luke and political events, a case can be made that canonical Luke is strongly pro-Roman outlook. Pay your taxes (Luke 20:20-25), turn the other cheek, give the Roman soldiers your cloak, go the extra mile. In other words, be good little servants and you will get your reward in heaven! This is as far from a rabble rousing Zealot Jesus as you can get.

But back to the subject. Why don't you start a new thread on this subject? I would like to see spin's input.

Jake Jones IV
I don't necessarily disagree with what you say about Esebuis (though you'd have to shore up your claim about Luke being pro-Roman in a manner that casts doubt on his historical claims). But I don't know if it ends there. Once we establish an agenda, the issue becomes how it plays out in the text. Clearly Esebius wants to establish apostolic succession, but I just don't think that in itself resolves the argument started by Vinnie's topic thread, though it ought to inform it.

If the standard is, Esebius is biased so he made up everything he says about Jesus and apostolic succession, then like I say, we have just effaced all classical history, every word of which having been written by men with agendas every bit as distorting as Esebius', if not more so, since personal power and money was on the line for guys like Tacitus.
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Old 03-06-2007, 01:17 PM   #98
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...

Regions where gods can die and then return to life. All the regions of which I am aware where this was seen as happening are on the earth. Simple question: Are there other regions, not on earth, where this can happen, according to ancient thought of the relevant time period?

...
Ben.
Hi Ben,

I asked before, what about the Elysian Fields? They are ambiguosly part of the earth, but certainly not part of the prosaic world inhabited by mortal men.

Do the Elysian Fields meet your criteria?

Also, what about hades and the underworld? Again, occasionaly heroes will enter from earth and only with great difficulty return, and gods die sometimes are allowed to return in the spring.

So, does the underworld meet your criteria? Why or why not?

I was looking at the introduction to Colossians (chapter1) (where the thrones, powers, rulers, and authorities seem to hover in the lower heavens) earlier today, and a certain thought struck me.

Doesn't the Colossian Paul represent himself as a co-Redeemer (sort of like the catholics say of Mary), finishing up the work of Christ that Jesus didn't complete?

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Col 1:24 Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I do my share on behalf of His body, which is the church, in filling up what is lacking in Christ's afflictions.
Here Christ's affictions as defined as the sufferings in the flesh of "Paul" and his body is the church.

Jake
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Old 03-06-2007, 01:37 PM   #99
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I don't necessarily disagree with what you say about Esebuis... But I don't know if it ends there. Once we establish an agenda, the issue becomes how it plays out in the text. Clearly Esebius wants to establish apostolic succession, but I just don't think that in itself resolves the argument started by Vinnie's topic thread, though it ought to inform it.
...
Oh I agree totally, and nicely said. We don't throw Eusbius away, we just proceed cautiously when we examine items within the area of his agenda.

On this criterion, the remarks in Tacitus concerning Christianity seem more trustworthy than Eusubius on Papias because Christianity is not Tacitus' main issue. He certainly has biases in other areas (you mentioned money and power). But he has less stake in Christianity, so has little reason to fabricate. (There are other caveats involved with Tacitus which lie outside the scope of this thread).

Jake
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Old 03-06-2007, 02:11 PM   #100
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Hi Ben,

I asked before, what about the Elysian Fields? They are ambiguosly part of the earth, but certainly not part of the prosaic world inhabited by mortal men.

Do the Elysian Fields meet your criteria?
I do not know. I never know until I see the evidence at hand. I need to see some ancient quotes.

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Also, what about hades and the underworld? Again, occasionaly heroes will enter from earth and only with great difficulty return, and gods die sometimes are allowed to return in the spring.

So, does the underworld meet your criteria? Why or why not?
In dealing with Doherty, no, since he does not place the crucifixion, AFAICT, in Hades. A grammatical difficulty is impeding my understanding of the part about gods dying. Are you saying that redeemer gods would descend to the underworld, get killed, then return to the heavens?

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Doesn't the Colossian Paul represent himself as a co-Redeemer (sort of like the catholics say of Mary), finishing up the work of Christ that Jesus didn't complete?

Here Christ's affictions as defined as the sufferings in the flesh of "Paul" and his body is the church.
The interpretation of that verse is difficult on all sides, but I am not sure I understand the connection between it and a realm of flesh, not earth.

Ben.
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