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10-03-2012, 05:16 AM | #21 | ||
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10-03-2012, 05:29 AM | #22 |
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10-03-2012, 05:55 AM | #23 | |
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10-03-2012, 07:13 AM | #24 |
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Easily. The writers of the gospels wrote probably in Ephesia, Galilee, Antioch, Ephesus, Syria, but not in Athens. Their Greek language was scattered with Aramaisms. My English can be scattered with gallicisms, as well.
This explanation has nothing to do with a theory of a historical or mythical Jesus. |
10-03-2012, 07:19 AM | #25 | |
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As superstitous people, they needed their Jesus to incant foreign words when raising somebody from the dead. |
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10-03-2012, 07:28 AM | #26 | |
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Cumulative case? Is that the theory that 20 buckets with leaks in them hold more water than one bucket with a leak in it? And Ehrman's case is Galatians 1:19. That's it. And, of course, Ehrman has to make the ad hoc assumption that all these Aramaic sayings of Jesus raising a child from the dead are totally and utterly genuine, although he would laugh in your face if you said that the story of Jesus raising a child from the dead is genuine. |
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10-03-2012, 08:18 AM | #27 |
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So, blows on the head! That is what we're talking about right?
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10-03-2012, 08:20 AM | #28 | |||
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10-03-2012, 09:17 AM | #29 | ||
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I would think that the prediction of an HJ theory would be that the original gospel[s] were written completely in Aramaic. Finding a few Aramaic words in a Greek narrative is just an attempt to save the theory. This is the problem with your "predictions." You take the given facts and force them to be "predicted" by your theory. Quote:
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10-03-2012, 09:24 AM | #30 |
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