sotto voce

That's where the apostles really screwed up. They quite failed to notice that the Holy Land was the Holy Land, for God's sake. They failed to organise even one tour. They provided no monks, grottoes, holy relics or processions led by gilded statues of Mary, or by bishops in impressive regalia to cow and subjugate the masses. Simply weird.

Chili

Quite opposite actually in that without a historical Jesus there can also not be a holy land and Nazareth where Mary was from only exist in the human mind as the sum total of religion in motion as the river Tigris that flows [back home] in the East as the place we once knew and here now out West first learn that that is where wisdom is at.

andrewcriddle

One should probably distinguish between "rabbi" as a term of respect 'master' which occurs in the synoptics and "rabbi" as a formal title meaning 'teacher' which occurs in John.

John's usage seems more likely to be anachronistic.

Andrew Criddle

Edited to Add

See post post7063901 for Matthew 23:8 which also uses rabbi to mean teacher.

sotto voce

Reference, please.

mountainman

They were just late doing it, that's all. Better late than never.

The first two pilgrims to the Holy Land were Constantine's relatives.

In which century was "the Apostolic Age" again?

In which century do Jewish Rabbis appear?

Someone help me out here ...

andrewcriddle

See John 1:38 Andrew Criddle

Edited to Add

I should have noted that according to what is almost certainly the correct text of Matthew 23:8 we have the same use of rabbi to mean teacher See matthew 23-8 for the different Greek texts and English translations.

I should have said that in Mark rabbi means Master and does not have the problems of anachronism we find in some of the later texts in Matthew and John.

sotto voce

This refers to the disciples calling Jesus a rabbi, not 'Rabbi Jesus'.

There is no use of this word as an official title in the Bible. In fact, no use of the word 'Rabbi' is official, if it is used by a body that claims the Bible as its source. There was no rabbinate or teaching authority commanded by Moses or any other responsible Israelite. The precept of Jesus, that all the saints are brothers, applied even in Israel under the law. The readiness of some Israelites to call John (the Baptist) and Jesus 'rabbi' doubtless reflected the informal, common practice of the day, that actually militated against the ethos of Israel when applied to any others, because it belittled the whole nation. It was after Jesus had condemned the practice that 'Jews' decided to make the word a formal title (thereby confirming their exclusion from Abrahamic inheritance). Perhaps Jesus induced this hardening.

Duvduv

This is a moot point. The term "rabbi" as a description of a teacher or his title was a development after the destruction of the Temple. There is no evidence from any Jewish sources that this term was used previously, as I mentioned, Hillel was not referred to as rabbi Hillel or Hillel the rabbi.

sotto voce

Correction.

Hillel was not referred to as Rabbi Hillel or Hillel the Rabbi.

judge

The original word is Akkadian RAB, meaning chief or overseer.

This Akkadian word passes into both Aramaic (which we find in marks gospel) and Hebrew.

You are left arguing that this ancient word vanishes for centuries only to reappear after 100 CE.You have no good reason to to believe that the Aramaic rabboni, can't be used in the first century CE to call someone a "master"