Sheshbazzar

Yet in this this thread in post #74 you inferred that Jerome had incorrectly translated Exodus 3:14 into the Latin -
"because two totally divergent and contradicting views resulted",
even though you are unable to either read or understand either the Hebrew or the Latin texts to determine whether the Vulgates Latin translation of Exodus 3:14 as performed by Jerome is correct or not.
Rather your diatribe about some 'Hebrew gospel' indicated that you simply didn't have a clue as to what was actually being discussed.
You took the stance that Jerome's Latin translation of Exodus 3:14 had to be wrong (even though you couldn't even read it) simply because;
"Jerome's interpretation cannot be equivalent to the original Hebrew premises - Jerome never followed those premises and is readng from the lens of a the NT"

Thus if you so declare Jerome's Latin translation of Exodus 3:14 to be defective in any way, it is then only reasonable to ask you to provide us with a Latin translation of Exodus 3:14 that is not so biased and defective; Provide us (and the entire world) a 'corrected' Latin translation that meets with your approval.

You need to point out exactly what 'wrong' Latin words or syntax Jerome erroneously employed within his Latin translation of Exodus 3:14 that you find to be objectionable, and provide us with a Latin translation of Exodus 3:14 that is superior to, and more correct than that one provided by Jerome in Exodus 3:14 of the Vulgate Bible.

Trashing and finding fault the individual, does nothing to improve upon his work. If you think that you have a better command of, and better knowledge of the Hebrew, and of the Latin languages than Jerome, now is your time to prove it.
Write Exodus 3:14 out in your very best Latin, to your own satisfaction, so that our language experts can analyse what the difference is that you have claimed exists. Explain any obscure Latin words or syntactical constructions that you might choose to employ in the place of Jerome's Latin of Exodus 3:14