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Old 09-04-2009, 08:06 AM   #461
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Does not. Check Rom. 3:25 for yourself. Only the NAS supports your assertion. Greek here.
the word proeqeto means:

1) to place before, to set forth
1a) to set forth to be looked at, expose to view
1b) to expose to public view
1b1) of the bodies of the dead
1b2) to let lie in state
2) to set before one's self, propose to one's self
2a) to purpose, determine

the context is a death and the use of the word in public viewing is most appropriate. NASB, and the many other versions that translate it as such are correct.

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Post Pauline interpolation.
great, you supplied a link to a page where you are making the same claim.

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3) Rom 5:19 refers to him as a man
Does not. Check Romans 5:19 for yourself.

The reference to Jesus as a man is added in some translations.

Jake
yes, because it is referring to the same man Jesus Christ that is explicitly stated in rom 5:15. If you find a translation that omits man in rom 5:15, it is wrong.
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Old 09-04-2009, 08:27 AM   #462
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willful ignorance!
sloppy reading!

Rom 1:3 - no Christ

Rom 3:25 - no flesh :huh:

Rom 8:3 - emphasizes his negative view of flesh :huh:

1 Cor 15:3-8 - no flesh :huh:

In none of your examples is "Christ" positively connected to flesh. Please pay attention if you want to make a valid point.
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Old 09-04-2009, 08:30 AM   #463
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not if the other James was also a pillar in Jerusalem.
Unless and until you discover some evidence that suggests this notion is more than just a fantasy intended to preserve your beliefs, my point stands.
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Old 09-04-2009, 08:42 AM   #464
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post
Does not. Check Rom. 3:25 for yourself. Only the NAS supports your assertion. Greek here.
the word proeqeto means:

1) to place before, to set forth
1a) to set forth to be looked at, expose to view
1b) to expose to public view
1b1) of the bodies of the dead
1b2) to let lie in state
2) to set before one's self, propose to one's self
2a) to purpose, determine

the context is a death and the use of the word in public viewing is most appropriate. NASB, and the many other versions that translate it as such are correct.
You are again reading your dogmatics into your arguments.

The reader can compare many translations of Romans 3:25 here.
As far as I can see, only NAS reads "displayed publicly" and even there it could simply mean public preaching.

Do you think προέθετο means publicly displayed in Ephesians 1:9?
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Old 09-04-2009, 08:45 AM   #465
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
willful ignorance!
sloppy reading!

Rom 1:3 - no Christ

Rom 3:25 - no flesh :huh:

Rom 8:3 - emphasizes his negative view of flesh :huh:

1 Cor 15:3-8 - no flesh :huh:

In none of your examples is "Christ" positively connected to flesh. Please pay attention if you want to make a valid point.
(Rom 1:1) From Paul, a slave of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle, set apart for the gospel of God. (Rom 1:2) This gospel he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures, (Rom 1:3) concerning his Son who was a descendant of David with reference to the flesh,(Rom 1:4) who was appointed the Son-of-God-in-power according to the Holy Spirit by the resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord.
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Old 09-04-2009, 08:52 AM   #466
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Rom 1:1 - no positive connection between Christ and flesh

Rom 1:3 - no positive connection between Christ and flesh

The "son" takes on the appearance of flesh, which is necessarily negative for purposes of the future sacrifice (see 8:3) and "Christ" is used to describe the resurrected (ie not flesh) entity.

The reference to James is a positive use of "flesh" in direct connection with Christ. You need a similar positive reference to Christ that relates to flesh. To my knowledge, Paul consistently uses "flesh" to describe things of which he does not approve.

Do you understand now? Or do you have no real intention of understanding? I can't be more explicit. :banghead:
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Old 09-04-2009, 08:57 AM   #467
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post


the word proeqeto means:

1) to place before, to set forth
1a) to set forth to be looked at, expose to view
1b) to expose to public view
1b1) of the bodies of the dead
1b2) to let lie in state
2) to set before one's self, propose to one's self
2a) to purpose, determine

the context is a death and the use of the word in public viewing is most appropriate. NASB, and the many other versions that translate it as such are correct.
You are again reading your dogmatics into your arguments.

The reader can compare many translations of Romans 3:25 here.
As far as I can see, only NAS reads "displayed publicly" and even there it could simply mean public preaching.

Do you think προέθετο means publicly displayed in Ephesians 1:9?
the subject in rom 3:25 is 'him, at his death'. the context of what is being set forth is this event. this is confirmed in the next sentence where he points out the reason was to demonstrate his righteousness in the present time.

yes, eph 1:9 is saying the same thing. the context is something being revealed to 'us'. How public it is in this case depends on what he means by us and here, he is referring to those by 'predestined to adoption as his sons through Jesus Christ, according to the pleasure of his will - ' (Eph 1:5)
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Old 09-04-2009, 09:02 AM   #468
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Rom 1:1 - no positive connection between Christ and flesh

Rom 1:3 - no positive connection between Christ and flesh

The "son" takes on the appearance of flesh, which is necessarily negative for purposes of the future sacrifice (see 8:3) and "Christ" is used to describe the resurrected (ie not flesh) entity.

The reference to James is a positive use of "flesh" in direct connection with Christ. You need a similar positive reference to Christ that relates to flesh. To my knowledge, Paul consistently uses "flesh" to describe things of which he does not approve.

Do you understand now? Or do you have no real intention of understanding? I can't be more explicit. :banghead:
yes, very explicit, but irrelevant to the discussion. docetism is not related to the conversation I am in. If you want to say that Gal 1:19 is saying that James appeared to be christs brother, then go ahead. it is wrong but not the current conversation.
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Old 09-04-2009, 09:49 AM   #469
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You are again reading your dogmatics into your arguments.

The reader can compare many translations of Romans 3:25 here.
As far as I can see, only NAS reads "displayed publicly" and even there it could simply mean public preaching.

Do you think προέθετο means publicly displayed in Ephesians 1:9?
the subject in rom 3:25 is 'him, at his death'. the context of what is being set forth is this event. this is confirmed in the next sentence where he points out the reason was to demonstrate his righteousness in the present time.

yes, eph 1:9 is saying the same thing. the context is something being revealed to 'us'. How public it is in this case depends on what he means by us and here, he is referring to those by 'predestined to adoption as his sons through Jesus Christ, according to the pleasure of his will - ' (Eph 1:5)
In public preaching.
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Old 09-04-2009, 09:52 AM   #470
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Notice how the salutation in the canonical version of Romans chapter 1 has become a proto-orthodox doctrinal treatsie rather than the greeting of a letter! What a convoluted mess. It touches, not coincidentally, on every second century hot button the proto-orthodox disputed with the Marionites.

But we have textual evidence of another version that predates the oldest extant manuscripts. Röm 1:2-6 was not in Marcion’s version. Orig. Comm. X § 24 in Joh.

Reconstructed text available here. Reconstructed Text

Here is Marcion's Recension in English.

Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle and set apart for the gospel of God,
to all the beloved of God, called to be holy. Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.

That is how one would expect a letter to begin.

The question then is which is more original, Marcionite recension or Catholic recension?

Best,
Jake Jones IV
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