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09-04-2009, 08:06 AM | #461 | |||
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1) to place before, to set forth 1a) to set forth to be looked at, expose to view 1b) to expose to public view 1b1) of the bodies of the dead 1b2) to let lie in state 2) to set before one's self, propose to one's self 2a) to purpose, determine the context is a death and the use of the word in public viewing is most appropriate. NASB, and the many other versions that translate it as such are correct. Quote:
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09-04-2009, 08:27 AM | #462 |
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sloppy reading!
Rom 1:3 - no Christ Rom 3:25 - no flesh :huh: Rom 8:3 - emphasizes his negative view of flesh :huh: 1 Cor 15:3-8 - no flesh :huh: In none of your examples is "Christ" positively connected to flesh. Please pay attention if you want to make a valid point. |
09-04-2009, 08:30 AM | #463 |
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09-04-2009, 08:42 AM | #464 | ||
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The reader can compare many translations of Romans 3:25 here. As far as I can see, only NAS reads "displayed publicly" and even there it could simply mean public preaching. Do you think προέθετο means publicly displayed in Ephesians 1:9? |
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09-04-2009, 08:45 AM | #465 | |
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(Rom 1:1) From Paul, a slave of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle, set apart for the gospel of God. (Rom 1:2) This gospel he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures, (Rom 1:3) concerning his Son who was a descendant of David with reference to the flesh,(Rom 1:4) who was appointed the Son-of-God-in-power according to the Holy Spirit by the resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord. |
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09-04-2009, 08:52 AM | #466 |
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Rom 1:1 - no positive connection between Christ and flesh
Rom 1:3 - no positive connection between Christ and flesh The "son" takes on the appearance of flesh, which is necessarily negative for purposes of the future sacrifice (see 8:3) and "Christ" is used to describe the resurrected (ie not flesh) entity. The reference to James is a positive use of "flesh" in direct connection with Christ. You need a similar positive reference to Christ that relates to flesh. To my knowledge, Paul consistently uses "flesh" to describe things of which he does not approve. Do you understand now? Or do you have no real intention of understanding? I can't be more explicit. :banghead: |
09-04-2009, 08:57 AM | #467 | ||
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yes, eph 1:9 is saying the same thing. the context is something being revealed to 'us'. How public it is in this case depends on what he means by us and here, he is referring to those by 'predestined to adoption as his sons through Jesus Christ, according to the pleasure of his will - ' (Eph 1:5) |
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09-04-2009, 09:02 AM | #468 | |
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09-04-2009, 09:49 AM | #469 | ||
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09-04-2009, 09:52 AM | #470 |
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Notice how the salutation in the canonical version of Romans chapter 1 has become a proto-orthodox doctrinal treatsie rather than the greeting of a letter! What a convoluted mess. It touches, not coincidentally, on every second century hot button the proto-orthodox disputed with the Marionites.
But we have textual evidence of another version that predates the oldest extant manuscripts. Röm 1:2-6 was not in Marcion’s version. Orig. Comm. X § 24 in Joh. Reconstructed text available here. Reconstructed Text Here is Marcion's Recension in English. Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle and set apart for the gospel of God, to all the beloved of God, called to be holy. Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. That is how one would expect a letter to begin. The question then is which is more original, Marcionite recension or Catholic recension? Best, Jake Jones IV |
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