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Old 04-10-2007, 07:04 AM   #71
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
Larsguy47 persists in the delusion that Aristotle actually knew Socrates because Aristotle quotes Socrates a lot. This is despite the fact that Aristotle was born nearly 20 years after the death of Socrates. What has put this bee in Larsguy47's bonnet? He thinks that passages like:
Others hold that only what is useful is a friend, the proof being that all men actually do pursue the useful, and discard what is useless even in their own persons (as the old Socrates used to say, instancing spittle, hair and nails), and that we throw away even parts of the body that are of no use, and finally the body itself, when it dies, as a corpse is useless—but people that have a use for it keep it, as in Egypt. (2.74)
show he knew Aristotle. Hardly likely though. Aristotle tends to cite Plato's Socrates as can be seen in his Treatise on Government Bk 2 Ch 1:
it is possible that the citizens may have their wives, and children, and goods in common, as in Plato's Commonwealth; for in that Socrates affirms that all these particulars ought to be so.
Or Bk 4 Ch 4:
So that when Socrates, in Plato's Republic, says that a city is necessarily composed of four sorts of people, he speaks elegantly but not correctly
Or Bk 4 Ch 12:
In Plato's Republic, Socrates is introduced treating upon the changes which different governments are liable to
Seems strange that anyone would need to contemplate the theory that Aristotle lived at the time of Socrates purely because Aristotle cited Plato's Socrates. If I quote him, do I know him as well?!


spin

HI Spin, you're a genius! Now why not find a common quote where Aristotle is quoting directly from the writings of Plato? It's quite logical, as you say that if he didn't know him he must be quoting from Plato. Of course, he could be quoting from Socrates himself. So you're right. His quoting doesn't prove he knew him. Just liked him or at least liked quoting from him.

http://socrates.clarke.edu/aplg0501.htm

Here's a photo of Phaedo's home in Ellis I can't explain either:


Quote:
Phaedo (the person)

Phaedo, himself, is much younger than Socrates and is about eighteen years old at the time of the execution. Originally brought to Athens as a slave, he was eventually set free and became one of Socrates most devoted students. Later, he opened his own school of philosophy at Elis, a Greek city approximately one hundred miles west of Athens on the Peloponnesian Peninsula. There he composed his own dialogues, focusing on the field of ethics.


According to one interpretation, Socrates and Phaedo were lovers, and it was Socrates who set the latter free. In ancient Athens, as well as other Greek cities, sex between adult men and young males who had reached puberty was culturally acceptable. It was often part of a mentoring program intended to educate the male youth by exposing them to the activities in which they were expected to participate. These activities included politics, economics, training for war, and sex. Thus, what would be sexual abuse by contemporary standards in Western culture, was an expected part of growing up for the affluent youth of ancient Greece. Such a "practicum" in same sex love-making would make national news today, especially in the supermarket tabloids!
I guess he was a real person. How could I have been misled that that silly book I have?!!

LG47
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Old 04-10-2007, 08:01 AM   #72
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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
HI Spin, you're a genius!
Don't you know it takes one to know one?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Now why not find a common quote where Aristotle is quoting directly from the writings of Plato?
Why does Aristotle have to quote Plato's Socrates verbatim? It is sufficient that he knew the content of the work and could quote the ideas from memory.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
It's quite logical, as you say that if he didn't know him he must be quoting from Plato. Of course, he could be quoting from Socrates himself. So you're right. His quoting doesn't prove he knew him. Just liked him or at least liked quoting from him.
So, you've got another bogus claim. Well, it's good that you've basically admitted that the claim is bogus.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
I guess he was a real person.
What has that got to do with Aristotle??

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
How could I have been misled that that silly book I have?!!
I can only go by the stuff that you post, Larsguy47. So far I've only seen bogus claims, such as this one about Aristotle or the six year reign of Darius or various others. If you've got some book that might lift your game, why not use it a bit more? A little evidence might bolster your sagging display.


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Old 04-10-2007, 08:47 AM   #73
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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
You don't get it. These people go to lots of trouble to try to date samples from these various levels. Then the publish a book and give a chart with DATES. They provide a chart which shows you which dates are stronger than others and the strongest dating for City IV is between 874-867BCE.
I get it fine. You don't.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
As far as their error margin goes, this is what they say:

However, multiple measurements of the same sample material, including AMS on small samples, may enable the calculation of a weighted average that can result in very low standard deviations, below 10.
OK. Go get your dictionary. It's probably a big red book on your shelf that looks brand new. Look up "may" and "can". I'll wait.

Got it? OK. You should have discovered that those words mean "to have the possibility of." What the authors are conveying here, which should be clear to anyone with a modicum of familiarity with the English language, is that under ideal circumstances, the equipment at Groningen is capable of 1-sigma values below 10 years. Not that every measurement will result in such precision and accuracy, but that some could.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
As you know, the single sample from Rehov was divided into seven samples so they used this method. The result was a high "relative probability" for a range of dates less than 10 years.
Yeah, yeah. And I note here that you've abandoned your previous assertion that the sample was "large", which wasn't supported by the source material, anyway. But now, let's look at the standard deviations, or 1-sigma values, which you're asserting are are date ranges of less than 10 years. The results of the actual 7 datings run on the samples from Stratum IV at Tel Rehov used to date the destruction of City IV are shown below, taken from the data in your original source. This is the section of the statistical model that is later used to generate the chart you show below. By way of interpretation, the first line, "Boundary;" commands the model to look at the next block of data as connected to a single event. The "R_Combine 'Locus 5498" line indicates to the model that it is to generate a weighted average of the R_Date values that follow. The seven subsequent lines, "R_Date 'GrA-..." are the actual sample measurements, as determined by the AMS equipment. They are of the form "R_Date <sample name> <measured date in years before present (BP)> <standard deviation>"

The standard deviations of your samples are 50, 50, 35, 45, 40, 50, and 50 years, respectively. Not a single standard deviation is anywhere close to 10 years as you claim.

Quote:
From The Groningen Radiocarbon Series From Tel Rehov, page 277-278

Boundary;
Phase ‘Stratum IV Destruction’
{
R_Combine ‘Locus 5498’
{
R_Date ‘GrA-21152’ 2770 50;
R_Date ‘GrA-21154’ 2730 50;
R_Date ‘GrA-21267’ 2760 35;
R_Date ‘GrA-22301a’ 2710 45;
R_Date ‘GrA-22301b’ 2775 40;
R_Date ‘GrA-22330a’ 2760 50;
R_Date ‘GrA-22330b’ 2785 40;
};
Event ‘Destruction City IV’;
};

Now, what do those dates have to do with what's on the chart? Well, this is where the power of statistics is brought to bear. The seven samples above had a fairly wide spread. By building what we call a "model", we have a tool that helps us answer the question "if we had a huge amount of sample material from the same source that we could test, what sort of dates would we be likely to see?" (It's relevant to note at this point that those original samples are no more. They're combusted as part of the testing process, and the resulting CO2 is the useful stuff - in PGC the C14 in the CO2 is measured directly, in AMS it gets bound into graphite, but the important point is that both testing approaches are destructive to the original sample.)

Anyhow, we now have some original samples which have been used to build a model. The basic way the model works is that it randomly, within the bounds set by the original data, simulates a bunch of measurements (sampling). In this case, it took 227,094 samples. Those samples were plotted, and the results are the Figure 15.8 that we all know and love. Now, 227,094 samples is what is technically known as a "shit-load" of samples, so as a courtesy to the reader, the authors have simplified the chart. In it's pure form, it'd be a very dense histogram - years BCE on the horizontal axis, number of samples on the vertical axis, and you'd have a bunch of rectangles, one year wide, with a height corresponding to the number of times that year came up in the 227,094 samples. Tracking so far? Good. Obviously, you're going to have some number that comes up the most - there's your 871ish number. At this point, in the interest of legibility, the chart preparer used an arcane and magical process called "normalization", wherein he took the value of the highest number of samples and arbitrarily declared it to be a relative probability of 1. All the other sample frequencies were then scaled to that new relative point. That's what "relative probability" means.

Now, your 871 number does indeed have the highest probability of any other number shown on that chart. But every time it turned up in the simulation, it had a 1-sigma confidence interval (and a 2-sigma) with it. Within those confidence intervals, any number is equally likely. The center point isn't any more or less special.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Note:


28 to 55 years. 2-sigma seems a better reference. But that also gives us 918-823BCE. Add 918 to 823 and you get 1741. Divide by 2 and you get 870.5, which is 871 BCE, for the very middle of this 95.4% range. 925 BCE is not in this given range. On the graph, though, the only dates higher than 95.4% are about 7 years from 874-867BCE, that is, on the "relative probability" scale from 0.0 to 1.0. Now they would not have given us a scale to measure "relative probability" in relation to the graph unless they wanted us to do precisely that. If the entire range of 918-823BCE was at 95.4% then it would have shown all those dates at the 95.4% "relative probably" level on the scale at 0.954. But they don't. Only 874-867 reach that high.
You're just spouting nonsense now. The authors conclude their writeup by stating on page 292:


Quote:
5. The City of Stratum IV had a possible duration of 28–55 years, in the 1-sigma and 2-sigma ranges, respectively.

6. The destruction of City IV occurred at some time in the 2-sigma range of 918–823 BCE (95.4%).

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post

See. "RELATIVE PROBABILITY" from 0.0 to 1.0? See at the bottom those dates? This chart is meant for you to compare the two. Compare the "relative probability" with a specific date. It's not that hard. Just find where your date is on the chart and then follow that up to where the darkend shaded area stops. Then check directly across to your left horizontally to see the "relative probability".

LG47
No, it isn't that hard. The problem is, you still haven't done it right. Your argument is specious. Your interpretation of the data is wrong. You don't understand the math and techniques involved. Take some of the time you spend coming up with this dreck and take an introductory calculus class, and then an introduction to probability and statistics class, then try again.

regards,

NinJay
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Old 04-10-2007, 08:51 AM   #74
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Originally Posted by spin View Post


I can only go by the stuff that you post, Larsguy47. So far I've only seen bogus claims, such as this one about Aristotle or the six year reign of Darius or various others. If you've got some book that might lift your game, why not use it a bit more? A little evidence might bolster your sagging display.

spin
It's sagging to you and I'm posting as fast as I can; haven't you noticed?

Anyway, the 6-year limitation is Biblical. It's there. That's it. Take it or leave it. But the VAT4956 proves the 568BCE dating is bogus and it requires the redating to 511BCE. That's a more critical reference than anything. But it happens to agree with the Bible.

Now don't you think it's a little bit strange that these two "errors" just happen to match 511BCE which then dates year 37 of Neb2 to 525BCE, the same date the Bible does when the 1st of Cyrus falls in 455BCE? C'mon. That's too coincidental.

Remember, it's not the strengths but the weakness of the chronology you have to be concerned with. A chain is no stronger than it's weakest link and the Greco-Persian Period is said to be the "darkest period in human history."

So many presume there were not revisions for some reason (unless dealing with the Bible) but there simply were.

LG47
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Old 04-10-2007, 09:08 AM   #75
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Originally Posted by NinJay View Post
I get it fine. You don't.


No, it isn't that hard. The problem is, you still haven't done it right. Your argument is specious. Your interpretation of the data is wrong. You don't understand the math and techniques involved. Take some of the time you spend coming up with this dreck and take an introductory calculus class, and then an introduction to probability and statistics class, then try again.

regards,

NinJay
Thanks, NJ for your explanation, it's appreciated. What you don't understand is that their theory of "weighted averaging" shows the highest number of hits, just like you said, in and around 871BCE and they feel that that is closer to the "true date." The chart reflects, as I said, the highest number of hits. What you're saying is that the highest number of hits is possibly not an indicator of the "true date". But why wouldn't it be?

Since I know from astrochronology that 871BCE is the absolute fixed date for that event, when I see the RC14 pointing specifically at that same date, it confirms that the "weighted average" is an excellent and uncannily specific means of RC14 dating. When you have short-lived cereals as in this case it could represent the date of the event within a year.

So we're making progress. The shart shows the "highest hits" and that is suspected for possibly representing the truest date. Whether that is true or not depends on whether you can determine the actual date and compare. I can do that, and it's right on the button. So this "weighted averaging" works great. It's a great tool when you have the right sample.

In the meantime, I know and understand the limitations and some degree of flexibility, in fact, for the entire stated range, but I also understand that dates closest to the center are more "conservative". So no matter what, 871BCE is going to be "more" than dates in either direction farther away from 871BCE.

So you just conceded to me. It's presumed that the weighted average is closer to the true date. So if we were to use any reference from the RC14 from Rehov, we'd start at 871 BCE and work our way away from that date if need be. But at some point beyond 10, 20 or 30 years, the RC14 suggests less "relative probability."

So thanks. I understand this is not "absolute" but the best "reference" they could come up with based upon the analysis.

:redface:

LG47
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Old 04-10-2007, 10:17 AM   #76
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From RED DAVE:
Quote:
Still waiting. You've already started a new eclipse thread without finishing this one.
From Larsguy47:
Quote:
I believe I answered all the posts. If there is a particular one you wish specifically answered that I missed, let me know by e-mail or repost the link. Thanks.
It's the issue you are addressing below.

From RED DAVE:
Quote:
My recollection, from when you posted it before, it that the visuals don't show a classic annular eclipse, with the Moon in the center of the Sun, but one that closely resembles a partial eclipse, with the Sun appearing not as a ring but as a crescent as Thucydides describes. Correct me if I'm wrong.
From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Sorry, I'm realizing I presume too much about people's knowledge of astronomy.
That was uncalled for.

No one around here has shown lack of knowledge of astronomy. And, by the way, when I was 13, I was the proud owner of a 6" reflecting telescope, which my Dad and I built. I know a bit about astronomy. And I've witnessed at least 3 eclipses of the Sun, although none of them were total.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Every total or annular eclipse is only annular and total for a certain area, about 93 miles wide. That is, within that area they see the annular or total eclipse. But outside that range the eclipse appears partial, or like a crescent.
We know that. But you have neglected to mention that during an annular eclipse, if the Moon is not dead-center to the Sun, the appearance of the annulus is crescent-like. As I recall from the graphic you posted earlier, this is the case of the eclipse of 431, which just misses being a partial and not an annular.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
In the case of my illustration, therefore, I was showing that from the specific location of Athens, how each eclipse would look. Since Athens was outside the central total eclipse track of both eclipses, some of the sun was still visible. Thus the purpose of the comparison was to show how little the crescent was in 402 BCE compared to 431BCE as viewed from Athens. Perhaps it hadn't been established the location of the observation.
No, what you were originally trying to establish was that the 402 eclipse was total, and therefore showed the stars, which it wasn't.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
At any rate, in this case, since neither is observed in the direct path of totality, one would not expect to see totality at the maximal phase, but instead what I posted. Basically this just says that the 402BCE eclipse track was much closer than the 431 BCE eclipse track.
That is irrelevent. It was not total; therefore, no stars.

From RED DAVE:
Quote:
This being the case, that both the eclipse of 431 and that of 402 resemble crescents, and the stars were probably not visible in either case, the 431 eclipse is strongly affirmed.
From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Yes, they are both supposed to since Athens is outside the totality track. However, whether the stars could be seen in 402 vs 431, using the Redshift program, whether it's that accurate or not not sure, or that specific, it does increase to full darkness for Athens at the maximal phase, whereas for the 431BCE eclipse it does not go to full darkness. The program just has three adjustments, day, evening and night. It uses the same "night" phase for the maximal phase of the 402BCE as if the eclipse were total for that location. Whether this is actually scientific enough to still say they would have seen stars I don't know, but it does not use that degree of darkness for the 431BCE eclipse. If the program is really accurate it would indicate that indeed stars would have been seen.
The 402 eclipse is not total. As far as I know, even the slightest bit of sunlight precludes stars. In any event, as we'll see below, the 402 eclipse is also wiped out by the dating.

From RED DAVE:
Quote:
Let's recall that Thucydides refers to an eclipse on a summer afternoon, which the 431 event is. The eclipse of 402 took place on a winter morning.

And let's recall that in order to revise history and reintroduce another eclipse you have to change the details of the eclipse.
From Larsguy47:
Quote:
He substituted his best alternative and it happened to occur in the summer, so he describes it that way. The whole reference is inserted.
Out-fucking-rageous.

You have no evidence for this. Try to write a professional, peer-reviewed article with bullshit like this and reviewers will laugh in your face. Come up with specifice documentation or textual analysis, or admit you have no evidence for tampering except that the date doesn't fit with your historic fantasy that the Bible in inerrant.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
So his describing the timing of the eclipse is part of the insertion. There is nothing wrong here. But it doesn't contradict the winter eclipse of 402 in this context.
Wrong. Wrong. And Wrong. The 402 winter morning eclipse is specifically precluded by the only text we have, which you have not produced one iota of evidence has been changed.

Let me interject something here. Larsguy47: you are demonstrating over and over again that you do not know how research is done. I don't know where you went to college, but I would be extraordinarily surprised if any of your professors would accept shoddy work like this.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
On the other hand, this eclipse in the first year of war means the plague has to break out and thousands die in just a month.
This is entirely possible. Plagues back then were uncontrollable.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
The war started in the summer. It's hard to pin down but Pericles didn't sail out until after the war was in progress for a while.
Okay. Fits the 432 eclipse perfectly.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
But there is a contradiction you should know about. In Plutarch the plague occurs first. Pericles is blamed for the plague and then he sets out to sail at which time an eclipse occurs. But in Thucydides, it is not until the second year of the war that the plague breaks out and then Pericles sails for the first time:

"For the plague broke out as soon as the Peloponnesians invaded Attica... But Pericles, who was still a general, held the same opinion as in the former invasion, and would not let the Athenians march out against them. However while they were still in the plain, and had not yet entered the Paralianland, he had prepared an armanment of a hundred ships for Peloponnese, and when all was ready put out to sea."

But this in Thucydides occurs in year two. The beginning of the chapter says, "Such was the funeral that took place during this winter, with which the first year of the war came to an end." (Chapter VII)

But Plutarch sets the plague and this sailing by Pericles after the plague begins. "The man resonsible for all this, his enemies said, was Pericles: because of the war he had squeezed the rustic rabble inside the city walls and then made no use whatsoever of all these men, but left them, penned up like cattle, to infect one another with death, without providng them with any diversion or relief. Since he wanted to make things better and at the same time to inflict some extra damage on the enemy, he fitted out 150 ships, put on board a sizeable and formidable force of infantry and calvary, and made everything ready for an expedition which was to fill the Athenians with high hopes and their enemies with abject fear. But just when the ships were all manned and ready, and Pericles had even boarded his own trireme, an eclipse of the sun occurred, so that darkness replaced daylight..."
Okay, I guess.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
So in Thucydides, the plague breaks out in the second year of the war and then Pericles sails out, but in Plutarch it happens during the first year of the war. Problem is the eclipse happens when Pericles is just about to sail after the plague breaks out. So for some reason, the plague was moved to the second year of the war in Thucydides?
Or Plutarch, writing hundreds of years later, was wrong.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
So you have a conflict because the eclipse has to happen during the summer of 431BCE per Thucydides, which doesn't give much time for the plague to break out and all the ravashing and deaths and everything and for Pericles to be blamed and then he finally sails out. He was to get the hopes of the people up and then the eclipse occurs.
No problem. Just events happening quickly.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Now the 402 BCE eclipse which happens in the winter allows plenty time for the war and for the people to crowd into the city and for the plague to start ravaging everything before he then sails out. The 431 BCE summer eclipse doesn't allow for that.
Yes it does. It just means tha the plague was virulent.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Which is probably why Xenophon edited Thucydides so that the plague happens in the second year of the war.
One more time, you have no evidence of this. This is scholarly irresponsibility. Don't try this in school.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
But the eclipse he found in 431BCE has to be dated then because it has to match the 1st year of the Olympic cycle. So he's trying to force the history change.
No, you are trying to force a change in history to fit your cockamamie schemes of Bible innerancy.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
So your choice. In Thucydides the sailing of Themistocles after the plague breaks out is not associated with the eclipse which happens the previous summer. In Plutarch the sailing after the plague breaks out and ravages occurrs when Pericles finally sets sail.
Thucydides: contemporary. Plutarch: hundreds of years later. Your choice.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
But by no means let this little contradiction make you think anything was revised!
I won’t Plutarch’s error confuse me.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
The history works quite well and even though Plato wasn't born yet he still could have been consulted in either the 1st or 2nd year of the War because the Greeks had that kind of power back then.
And I won’t let a legend from 250 years after the fact confuse me either.

From RED:
Quote:
Now, unless you can show some concrete evidence that Xenophon altered Thucydides in the eclipse passage, there is now absolutely no reason to favor the later eclipse, and your entire case for redating the Peloponnesian War, ridiculous as it was originally, is now doubly ridiculous.
From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Your case is lost because of the contradiction I forgot about. I have a note in my copy of Thucydides about it.
Let’s see this note. Please quote it: book, publication date, page, etc. Tha’s called scholarship. Until you show this note, I’ll assume it doesn’t exist. Show it, and then I can examine it.

From Larsguy47:
[QUOTE]But it's just one of many contradictions. As far as the suspicion of Thucydides being redacted, there are books on that[/quote}Please mention the specific book you are relying one, and give me a quote saying that that specific entry, concerning the eclipse, was redacted. In the absence of any source, or any reasoned analysis of the text, you are bullshitting.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
and this is one of the instances where they say it is clear there are problems. I'll have to try and find it, but in the meantime, just treat it as an unsubstantiated theory.
It doesn’t even get that status.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
In the meantime, I'm not being unreasonable about the timing of the eclipse.
Yes, you are considering it requires, basically, redating all of Greek history. As for example, I showed you on another thread that according to your fantasy dates, Socrates would have been the subject of a major comedy when he was a child.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Plutarch doesn't say when it was but there had to be time for the war to break out, everybody to crowd into the city and the plague to break out and ravage everything before Pericles finally sets out to sail. I don't think that happened in just a month. It couldn't have. That's likely why the plague was moved to the second year of the war in Thucydides.
Prove an error or redaction from sources. This is just speculation of the rankest sort, with the underlying theme of Biblical inerrancy.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Anyway, since the accounts are different you have your choice. One or the other revised their history. I've made my point.
Yes, you made a point. Now sit ... No, better not.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
And let's not forget your unsupported bullshit, including the famous secret book, that Socrates and Aristotle were lovers even though Aristotle was born 18 years after Socrates drank the hemlock.
From Larsguy47:
Quote:
I told you I didn't make it up
So let’s see the fucking book. This is worse than Secret Mark or Clifford Irving’s phony autobiography of Howard Hughes.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
but read it in a book.
Show us the fucking book or shut up about it.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
I don't know about these things. I only know that Socrates would have died in 466 or 465 which is when Aristotle would have been 18 or 19, which is close to the age of "Phaedo" when Socrates died.
You have no evidence except for your fantasy redating of the Peloponnesian War that this is so, and it is contradicted by every other known chronology of Greek history. I have a suggestion: write a monograph of your updating and submit it to a peer-reviewed journal.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Phaedo was Socrates' lover.
Okay. We know that from Plato.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
Aristotle quotes Socrates right and left, it's hard to believe he wasn't his student at least, and certainly knew him.
It’s very easy to believe. When I was studying philosophy, I once wrote a major paper on Sartre. I quoted Sartre, if I recall correctly, over a hundred times. And Sartre was still alive. But we never met, and I was not about to replace Simone de Beauvoir.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
But whether they were actually lovers or not is up for grabs.
Only in your mind.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
I don't know where that original story came from.
I thought it came from your famous, unknown book.

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
But obviously somebody out there also knows the chronology was revised and is keeping it secretive.
And the knowledge has been handed down through the ages.

OPENING NEXT CHRISTMAS:

THE PELOPONNESIAN CODE

Starring

Richard Harris as Socrates (appropriate since both are dead when the action starts)

Paris Hilton and Nicole Richie as Phaedo/Aristotle (unconventional casting)

Anthony Hopkins as Plato (why not?)

From Larsguy47:
Quote:
So by all means don't accept it until I come up with a reference!
Have no fear in that regard.

RED DAVE
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Old 04-10-2007, 10:19 AM   #77
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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
It's sagging to you and I'm posting as fast as I can; haven't you noticed?
I'd recommend less posting and more thought. YOu're posting fluent rubbish at the moment.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Anyway, the 6-year limitation is Biblical. It's there.
If you say so. Nevertheless, it's plug wrong. It's obvious to anyone who looks at the data that a six year reign for Darius I cannot make sense when texts from Darius's reign clearly indicate that he reigned at least 35 years, as transactions were recorded for that year.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
That's it. Take it or leave it.
As what you are saying is rubbish -- and I mean blatantly wrong, crap, nonsense, unacceptable to rational thought --, of course it should be left... in the nearest trash can.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
But the VAT4956 proves the 568BCE dating is bogus and it requires the redating to 511BCE.
Farting around shifting other people's data won't change the fact that your Darius six years stuff is bogus to the core.

You must understand that nothing you have posted to date has been presented in such a way as to make your conclusions reasonable from your data. Usually you don't have much data and where you do, you make logical blunders. The classical is of this type:

Arnold Schwarzenegger lifts weights.
And my uncle lifts weights.
Therefore Arnold Schwarzenegger is my uncle.

The old X = Y and Z = Y, therefore X = Z fallacy.

Your latest example is

This reference is linked to the KTU 1.78 text because its surface was burned and it was found in the ashes of a room that had been burned.
roughly translated thus:

KTU 1.78 was burnt in a fire.
Objects in 1375BCE were burnt in a fire.
Therefore KTU 1.78 was an object burnt in 1375BCE.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
That's a more critical reference than anything. But it happens to agree with the Bible.
Saying so doesn't make it so.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Now don't you think it's a little bit strange that these two "errors" just happen to match 511BCE which then dates year 37 of Neb2 to 525BCE, the same date the Bible does when the 1st of Cyrus falls in 455BCE? C'mon. That's too coincidental.
When you twiddle numbers to suit your conclusions coincidence doesn't enter the debate.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Remember, it's not the strengths but the weakness of the chronology you have to be concerned with. A chain is no stronger than it's weakest link and the Greco-Persian Period is said to be the "darkest period in human history."
Thank you, Doctor Who.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
So many presume there were not revisions for some reason (unless dealing with the Bible) but there simply were.
The material used in chronological construction these days is based on primary materials, on epigraphy. The bible is not primary material of history. One doesn't know when it was written. The earliest biblical text we have is from Qumran and may date back to the 3rd c. BCE.

History books weren't written at that time except for a few Greek writers with a clear historiographical perspective on the process of recording historical data. What is left is epigraphic data which incidentally provides dating information while dealing with other things, such as accounts from the Hebrew firm in Babylon, Egibi, which record events in particular years of the currently reigning king. This sort of material is the food for modern chronological research.

The bible, because we cannot know when the texts were written, doesn't provide us information about the period of its texts. If, for example, Chronicles was written in 300 BCE then its writer wasn't in any position to know what happened several hundred years earlier and Chronicles supplies a genealogy of the Davidic line that went fifteen generations after the start of the exile.

You however have stated that despite the evidence you will accept the data from the bible as though whatever is written there is veracious. This ultimately leaves you in the position of not being able to know anything, because you don't base your knowledge on evidence, but on faith in the bible.


spin
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Old 04-10-2007, 10:23 AM   #78
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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Thanks, NJ for your explanation, it's appreciated. What you don't understand is that their theory of "weighted averaging" shows the highest number of hits, just like you said, in and around 871BCE and they feel that that is closer to the "true date." The chart reflects, as I said, the highest number of hits.
You didn't say it. I said it. You're thrashing now. They used the weighted averaging to drive the model. The weighted average has nothing to do with how many times a result turned up in the model.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
What you're saying is that the highest number of hits is possibly not an indicator of the "true date". But why wouldn't it be?
To quote Hendrik J. Bruins, et al, from pg. 273 of The Bible and Radiocarbon Dating:

Quote:

There is another basic aspect that should be mentioned here briefly in relation to the Groningen 14C dates of Tel Rehov: ‘The statistical (random) nature of radioactive decay causes the results of repeated measurements to spread around a "true" value. The possible discrepancy between a measured value and the "true" value is indicated by the standard deviation ()’ (Mook and Waterbolk 1985: 10). Therefore, the midpoint value of a single date may be 1-sigma (68.2%) or 2-sigma(95.4%) away from the ‘true’ value.
This means, simply, that the midpoint value (which is what you're basing your conclusions on) could be as far off as anything in the confidence interval. Your own source, once again, does not support your conclusion.


If the authors felt that 871 was closer to the "true date", they would've said so. The didn't. They gave a range. All. Dates. Within. The. Range. Are. Equally. Likely.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
Since I know from astrochronology that 871BCE is the absolute fixed date for that event, when I see the RC14 pointing specifically at that same date, it confirms that the "weighted average" is an excellent and uncannily specific means of RC14 dating. When you have short-lived cereals as in this case it could represent the date of the event within a year.

Assuming your conclusion. Also, misusing the term "weighted average". Also, assuming that "could" necessarily implies "does".

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
So we're making progress. The shart shows the "highest hits" and that is suspected for possibly representing the truest date. Whether that is true or not depends on whether you can determine the actual date and compare. I can do that, and it's right on the button. So this "weighted averaging" works great. It's a great tool when you have the right sample.

If by progress you mean that your vocabulary is changing and you're drawing different incorrect conclusions from the data, then, yeah, I guess we're making progress. In the last few weeks you've wandered around from claiming 871 BCE is 99.5% likely to be the date, to claiming 871 BCE is the center of a very narrow range of high probability dates, all the while failing to address why, if your interpretation is such an obvious and well-attested interpretation, the very authors of the source which you are citing disagree with them. I've asked before, and I'll ask again: What qualifies you to second-guess the authors of your source? Do you believe you are more knowledgable about their areas of expertise than they are? That's a very brash claim, and you've yet to back it up.

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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
In the meantime, I know and understand the limitations and some degree of flexibility, in fact, for the entire stated range, but I also understand that dates closest to the center are more "conservative". So no matter what, 871BCE is going to be "more" than dates in either direction farther away from 871BCE.

This statement in and of itself demonstrates that you do not know or understand the limitations.


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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post
So you just conceded to me. It's presumed that the weighted average is closer to the true date. So if we were to use any reference from the RC14 from Rehov, we'd start at 871 BCE and work our way away from that date if need be. But at some point beyond 10, 20 or 30 years, the RC14 suggests less "relative probability."
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Originally Posted by Larsguy47 View Post


So thanks. I understand this is not "absolute" but the best "reference" they could come up with based upon the analysis.


:redface:

LG47


No, I didn't concede anything, but I'll grant that I could have been a bit clearer. I stated that the 871 date had the highest number of hits in the simulation. If they did another run of the simulation, and let it iterate the same number of times, you'd get a somewhat different chart. The peaks wouldn't be in precisely the same places. But the point isn't the peaks. The point is the confidence intervals. The statistical nature of the simulation means, by definition that you can't peg a specific date to the event under analysis. Nothing you can do changes that fundamental point. Nobody here is trying to argue that 871 BCE isn't a possible date for the event - but there is a wide range of other dates that are equally as possible.


regards,


NinJay
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Old 04-10-2007, 05:56 PM   #79
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If the authors felt that 871 was closer to the "true date", they would've said so. The didn't. They gave a range. All. Dates. Within. The. Range. Are. Equally. Likely.
Perhaps you could write it for him in crayon. He might understand it then.


spin
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Old 04-10-2007, 06:48 PM   #80
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Perhaps you could write it for him in crayon. He might understand it then.


spin

I tried to use short words...

regards,

NinJay
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