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02-12-2009, 12:56 PM | #91 | ||
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Andrew Criddle |
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02-12-2009, 02:48 PM | #92 | ||||||||||
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I've already dealt with everything you've brought up in previous posts and you're just not bringing up anything new. You just keep harping on about Creme/Paul and one quote/similarity, which similarity I've already clearly explained. That's pretty much what I expect from you though. |
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02-12-2009, 04:11 PM | #93 |
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You know what? The ahistoricists just convinced me. I now realize that no human being that did not produce an artifact or well-defined atifact trace (such as the information in a reproducible text) that exists to this day ever existed. Furthermore, things spoken are ineligible for tracing: you actually have to have written it yourself. That means that Mohammed did not exist. Paul did exist since he's simply said to be "the writer of x", but if he had had a copyist he would not have existed. Joseph Smith didn't exist since he didn't actually physically write the Book of Mormon. The people who built the pyramids, whoever they were, all existed, but most of the pharaohs, who were written about and had monuments created to them but did not actually produce any writings or monuments of their own, did not exist. How ironic ... the slaves of the pharaohs all existed but the pharaohs did not. In fact, the only possible way of referring to any ever really existing humans is by referring to them as "the writer of x" or "the creator of y" where x and y are original works we have in hand. And there's no reason to stop at humans! If it did not fossilize then it never existed and there's no reason to think it did! To repeat: There is absolutely no reason to think that anything but those specific individual organisms that actually fossilized ever existed! Wow! What an insight!
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02-13-2009, 12:21 AM | #94 | ||||
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From history? What history? (You know, just a tiny piece of actual evidence that any form of Christianity existed in Palestine, during the first century, would help.) Quote:
I actually get frustrated when I read such works, as they inevitably turn into a protracted session of assuming your own conclusions. If you think his work does not do this, give me a bit of a morsel, maybe I'll bite. Quote:
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02-13-2009, 05:54 AM | #95 | ||||
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02-13-2009, 06:08 AM | #96 | |
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I will read 'The Gospels in Context (or via: amazon.co.uk)'. We'll pick this up when I am finished. |
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02-13-2009, 06:31 AM | #97 | |
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Just FYI, I did not think there was much of a chance of a pre-Marcan passion narrative before reading Theissen. I am still not convinced there was one; but it is far more a possibility now than it was before I read him. I guess this is the way of things in biblical studies; the more you read, the less you know. Ben. |
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02-16-2009, 12:47 AM | #98 |
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The Presupposition of an Oral Tradition
Theissen states that his work is "intended to aid in the clarification of the possibilities for a history of the synoptic tradition from it's oral prehistory", etc.
A bit later he states that "the presupposition of an oral tradition will be regarded as valid", etc. He goes on to list a few reasons, mainly that: 1. Luke presupposes it, in his introduction 2. John's quip about the number of books needed to contain all of JC's adventures. 3. Papias saying that he preferred eyewitnesses to books. 4. Comparative history of religion. 5. "Formulas and recurrent motifs" found in the gospels. I need a little bit of help, here... Why is this not a circular argument which basically assumes that which the author wishes to conclude? |
02-16-2009, 07:14 AM | #99 | |
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02-16-2009, 07:20 AM | #100 | ||
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My problem is that I keep seeing it like this: various gospel passages are assumed to contain oral traditions > statements about oral tradition > assumption of oral tradition in general > argument to specific oral traditions in various gospel passages ...whatever, I'll continue on... |
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