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Old 08-13-2009, 10:53 AM   #51
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So yeah, Paul may have believed in a "historical" Jesus, but the problem is, it's not clear that the historical Jesus he believed in was identical with the "historical" (and perhaps more plausibly historical) Jesus portrayed in the gospels. The degree of historicity in Paul is also compatible with a mythical Jesus (of the with-pseudo-historical-details type), whose initial biography was a bit vague and sketchy and who later accreted a more detailed biography.
Its a fair point, but I am under the impression, since Christianity did not exist in any documented form before this, the individual in Paul must be recent. Do other purely mythical figures have historical details accrete 20 years from when they had actually lived? I ask that question out of a genuine desire to know the answer to it because I don't?
The Jews had been writing about mythical figures for centuries. People like Abraham, Moses, Joshua, David, Solomon, Daniel etc have little historical confirmation but loom large in Jewish legend. If the Christians were related somehow to people like the Qumran sectarians they might have been quite willing to mythologize real or imagined persons. Their Teacher of Righteousness could've been embellished, but like Jesus we don't know the facts.

We can't expect to see ancient authors following modern standards of historical or journalistic writing. Religious material by definition isn't scientific, there are too many irrational elements in play. There's often an "ends justify the means" rationale: bending the truth is okay if it serves a higher purpose.
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Old 08-13-2009, 11:08 AM   #52
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Oh, Vinnie, Vinnie, Vinnie, where is your critical approach to the text? Paul tells us that he had a revelation of Jesus from god. Can you test that revelation? Can you say what exactly it was? Was Paul in his right mind when he got the right version of messianism that clashed so markedly with the Jerusalem messianists? Is this guy sane who gets caught up to the third heaven? Is he on drugs? Is this a psychotic break?

Whatever it is, Paul doesn't need any information from other people about a historical Jesus to believe he is real. His revelation clearly makes any historical Jesus irrelevant. Just mull over the words of Gal 1:11-12. He can believe his Jesus is real without any real world knowledge of him. He had a revelation!
You do know what the word "If" means right?
Even in apologetics.

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You went completely on a tangent. That Paul had revelation hardly mitigates any historical details in the text, IF they exist. You offer us a non sequitur.
"[T]angent"? That means you're not dealing with what Paul actually said.

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You call Paul insane,...
Umm, I didn't. And you had the nerve to ask me about the meaning of "If"!

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...but his writings do not bear this out.
You're in no position to say this. And what follows is mere apologetics...

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He is simply religious. There is a difference. Paul may have been many things, but a man of low intelligence or a lunatic does not appear to be one of them.
Why don't you read what Paul says and not ignore both parts of my post, pretending to consider one of them?

The bit that you completely passed over requires you to understand what Paul was saying, so that you stop your errors about Paul believing in a historical Jesus, when Paul didn't get his information about Jesus from a historical source. As I said, "Just mull over the words of Gal 1:11-12." Here they are to make it easier for you:
11 I want you to know, brothers, that the gospel that was proclaimed by me is not of human origin. 12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ.
"I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it"!


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Old 08-13-2009, 11:47 AM   #53
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Just a quick thought I had:

Is this silence silenced a bit by the fact that 6 of the 13 works in the Pauline corpus are pseudonymous and they are attempting to imitate Paul, and filling their works with unPauline material would not be a good way to go about this task? That of course still leaves 9 other works but I am not sure if Revelation should even being counted though I read 1:5 as being pro-HJ anyways....

Vinnie

As a P.S., please note I am not saying I accept a complete silence in Paul on HJ details, I accept that there is a paucity of HJ details in Paul, not a complete silence. At any rate, my question is above.
The question is garbled because the thinking is incoherent. Is the argument from silence silenced because of a silence? Kind of a triple negative.

The more clearly you can state a question, the more clearly you have been thinking. Another tip-off is the "quick thought" confession.

I think you start with the premise that there is a Historical Jesus. Then you have this convoluted way of begging the question - you can interpret whatever is said to mean there is a historical Jesus.

Or a homosexual. Or what have you. Well, if we begin by assuming he is a homosexual and interpret everything in the text to mean that, then we can show he is a homosexual.

Admittedly the interpolations and redactions, the hand of the police power of the state, and religious institution political gaming clouds everything we hold.

And sadly that gives license to grant every benefit of the doubt to your premise in one gigantic circularity.

But why bother. You do the work by assuming it in the first place. Seems to me I'd take the rest of the day off.
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Old 08-13-2009, 12:06 PM   #54
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The bit that you completely passed over requires you to understand what Paul was saying, so that you stop your errors about Paul believing in a historical Jesus, when Paul didn't get his information about Jesus from a historical source. As I said, "Just mull over the words of Gal 1:11-12." Here they are to make it easier for you:
11 I want you to know, brothers, that the gospel that was proclaimed by me is not of human origin. 12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ.
"I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it"!


spin
This is just silly. Paul doesn't use "gospel" to mean "information about Jesus." He uses it to mean that you can have the mind that was in Christ, and be an inheritor of the Kingdom of God.

Paul did not get his understanding of this from the other apostles and this really shows in his understanding of the place of the Law.

Peter.
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Old 08-13-2009, 01:02 PM   #55
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The Pauline texts were altered by the proto-orthodox because the heretics found them authoritative, and were using them against the proto-orthodox. The Marcionites taught that the truth was given to Paul exclusively.
The information that Marcionites taught the truth was given to Paul exclusively actually came from a church writer not from Marcion.. And if a passage in Against Heresies by Irenaeus is examined , it will be noticed that the writer horribly contradicted himself when he wrote that he would refute even the portions of gLuke and the Pauline that were shortened by Marcion.

Marcion, in effect, had discarded ALL OF gLuke and the Pauline Epistles.


Against Heresies 3.12.12
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Wherefore also Marcion and his followers have betaken themselves to mutilating the Scriptures, not acknowledging some books at all; and, curtailing the Gospel according to Luke and the Epistles of Paul, they assert that these are alone authentic, which they have themselves thus shortened. In another work,(1) however, I shall, God
granting [me strength],refute them out of these which they still
retain.
Irenaeus is not credible at all. He is a fiction writer. His arguments are absurd.

Based on a writer who used the name of Tertullian, it is claimed that Marcion did not admit the resurrection of the flesh.

Now, both gLuke and the Pauline writings claim Jesus was both God and man, and that Jesus the God/man was raised from the dead.. Marcion could not have thought that Paul knew the truth.

Against Marcion 5.10.
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For Marcion does not in any wise admit the resurrection of the flesh, and it is only the salvation of the soul which he promises….
Marcion’s Jesus did not die, resurrect, nor was born. Marcion’s Jesus was a phantom. And was NOT predicted by the Hebrew prophets.

This a Pauline writer claiming Jesus was dead and then resurrected.

Corinthians 15:12-15 –
Quote:
12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead? 13 But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen: 14 And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain. 15 Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ….
Now , once you propose that the proto-orthodox were interpolating the Pauline Epistles then it is likely that the supposed 2nd century proto-orthodox writers, like Irenaeus, and Tertullian were actually the ones doing the interpolation.

Once you propose that the proto-orthodox interpolated the Pauline Epistles then you are implying that the proto-orthodox writers were aware of the interpolations but did not admit them and were not credible.

And once you propagate that the Pauline letters were inertpolated and also written very late,then the writings of the proto-orthodox writers, like Irenaeus and Tertullian, have become obsolete.
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Old 08-13-2009, 01:57 PM   #56
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What we do see are very standardised names for these letters.

Which means one source collected and named the collection we have now.


If the collections had come from different sources, we would expect to see names of the letters like 'Paul's letter from Damascus' , 'Paul's letter to Silvanus', whatever.

But the letters are named uniformly, using a pattern that Paul himself would never have needed to use.

So all the collections we see now must have come from one anthology, so we should not expect to see other heavily mutated versions, no matter what changes that original collector made (or which versions of competing manuscripts he may have had available to choose from)
So basically, if the manuscripts evidence was different cry wolf. If the manuscript evidence is good, cry wolf. I get it ....

Vinnie
I see Vinnie just ignores the fact that the letters of Paul have standardised names, which proves that the collection we have was produced by one authority, which decided to give them the names we now see.
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Old 08-13-2009, 01:59 PM   #57
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This is just silly. Paul doesn't use "gospel" to mean "information about Jesus." He uses it to mean that you can have the mind that was in Christ, and be an inheritor of the Kingdom of God.

Paul did not get his understanding of this from the other apostles and this really shows in his understanding of the place of the Law.

Peter.
Obviously, the term "gospel", anachronistically, is used by many to mean the Jesus Story in the four.

I can't help but feel this way about this kind of excruciatingly contorted artifice in the OP:

Take any genre, and spend just a little while listening to it: An auctioneer. A lawyer defending a client. A drunk on a barstool. A math professor. Whatever. Just a little bit of listening and immediately you say "auctioneer, lawyer, drunk, professor... etc." So hard to mistake one for the other.

Now we have religious mumbo-jumbo before us. And we are told that it is a history lecture.

Immediately your radar should be blaring about "historical" anything. What is the bible ostensibly? Some kind of guide to everlasting life. That premise is false. The events described are fantastical. It can be detected immediately on inspection, by a youngster. It cannot be mistaken for history. By anyone.

The one who seeks such an interpretation falls back on "oh, it has real place-names, some of the references can be interpreted just-so, etc..."

But I think this is really vinnie's core argument:


Quote:
"Perhaps Paul's docetist collector around 90-100 C.E. removed many of the clear historical Jesus details in the Pauline Corpus."



It's a new low in the arguments for a historical jesus: They destroyed the evidence.

I knew it. I just knew there had to be a real Jesus. but I couldn't figure out why there wasn't any evidence.

And here, the answer is so convincingly supplied. Of course!


It's a wonder all this time nobody thought of it...
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Old 08-13-2009, 02:33 PM   #58
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[But I think this is really vinnie's core argument:


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"Perhaps Paul's docetist collector around 90-100 C.E. removed many of the clear historical Jesus details in the Pauline Corpus."



It's a new low in the arguments for a historical jesus: They destroyed the evidence.
IIUC Vinnie is parodying here the tendency to rewrite our existing texts to fit our theories.

IE if it is legitimate to speculate, with no solid evidence, that our existing text of Paul has been edited so as to increase the allusions to a Historical Jesus, then it is equally legitimate to speculate, with no solid evidence, that our existing text of Paul has been edited so as to reduce the allusions to a Historical Jesus.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 08-13-2009, 03:41 PM   #59
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IE if it is legitimate to speculate, with no solid evidence, that our existing text of Paul has been edited so as to increase the allusions to a Historical Jesus, then it is equally legitimate to speculate, with no solid evidence, that our existing text of Paul has been edited so as to reduce the allusions to a Historical Jesus.
Both events are possible, and I think that both events happened. Which is why I think it's a hopeless endeavor to try to find any sort of "historical Jesus" from Paul's letters. The MSS evidence is abjectly one-sided - e.g. why would any orthodox Christian keep around manuscripts of Paul's letters that contradicted or didn't explicitly support "orthodox" dogma?

This was also what I was getting at when I sarcastically said that only "heretics" manipulated epistles and narratives and the "orthodox" simply presented the "originals", therefore all of our extant manuscripts are simply "the originals".
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Old 08-13-2009, 05:18 PM   #60
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The bit that you completely passed over requires you to understand what Paul was saying, so that you stop your errors about Paul believing in a historical Jesus, when Paul didn't get his information about Jesus from a historical source. As I said, "Just mull over the words of Gal 1:11-12." Here they are to make it easier for you:
11 I want you to know, brothers, that the gospel that was proclaimed by me is not of human origin. 12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ.
"I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it"!
This is just silly. Paul doesn't use "gospel" to mean "information about Jesus." He uses it to mean that you can have the mind that was in Christ, and be an inheritor of the Kingdom of God.
Another one who cannot read. The text says that Jesus Christ was revealed to Paul. To reinforce the notion 1:15-16 says that god "was pleased to reveal his son to me". Before the moment of revelation Paul didn't have knowledge of his son. What you base your claim of knowledge of what the gospel is that Paul received doesn't deal with the text. Paul's gospel came to him when Jesus was revealed to him. This is an indication of Paul's conversion for before that he was "zealous for the traditions of [his] ancestors".

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Paul did not get his understanding of this from the other apostles and this really shows in his understanding of the place of the Law.
What shows in Paul's teachings in Galatians is a contrast between the justification through the law and the knowledge of the death of Jesus: "for if justification comes through the law, then christ died for nothing." There's no way out of knowing Jesus in Paul's eyes and you know when Jesus was revealed to Paul.


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