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09-26-2007, 06:20 AM | #281 | ||
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More importantly, I note that Dave is shifting the goalposts and dishonestly claiming that he established something that he did not.
The very first line of his OP is Quote:
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This is dishonest, I'm afraid. Dave, you have done nothing to even establish that your 'presuppositions' underpin the DH. Nothing. Should we expect this kind of nonsensical moving of goalposts, and irrational behavior for the remainder of this thread? That is, until you are faced with too many contradictions and you bail out. |
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09-26-2007, 06:21 AM | #282 | |
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Dave are you actually saying that as we are mostly "Occidentals " here , there is no way we can accurately interpret the "Oriental " Bible as our minds don't work in the same way as the writers of the book ? Whoops there goes centuries of "Occidental Christian Theology " down the toilet then ! How then can Wiseman (an "Occidental " by the way ) interpert using "Oriental" thought processes ? Unless of course you are ASSUMING that Wiseman is a Jewish name and therefore he "thinks that way " |
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09-26-2007, 06:21 AM | #283 | |||
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Quote:
And in a subsequent post, this gem, directed to Dean Anderson: Quote:
regards, NinJay |
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09-26-2007, 06:35 AM | #284 | ||
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But this division doesn't help any, other than just inserting bookmarks.
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The DH makes things much clearer in its interpretation, so it has more consistency and consilience. This is why it has support, you get a better version with the DH breakdown. |
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09-26-2007, 06:39 AM | #285 | ||||
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Once again, Dave completely fails to acknowledge that the DH stands or fails on the evidence regardless of what the motives of its inventors may or may not have been.
And once again, Dave repeats his assertions that the DH depends on his list of presuppositions - despite the fact that it has repeatedly been pointed out to him that the evidence I have presented in support of the DH does not rely on them and is equally strong (or weak, if that is the case) regardless of whether they are true or not. Quote:
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You (and Archer - who is a YEC inerrantist apologist, but I suppose that is what passes for "scholar" in your neck of the woods) are missing the point. Saying that we cannot apply our modern concepts of style to ancient writings because the authors would not have recognised them is like saying we can not apply our modern concept of germ theory to explain the Black Death because the victims would not have recognised them. We - with our increased education and literacy - can easily recognise the idiolect of individual writers. We can recognise their individual styles. Teachers and lecturers do this every day when noticing plagarism in work that they have been handed. Even we here at IIDB do it when we notice that some posters are re-incarnations of previously banned users. That the writers and their contemporaries may not have recognised the individual idiolects and styles of authors, and not even had the concept of ideolects, doesn't mean that we can't recognise them when looking at the same authors. And I can't believe that - coming from an inerrantist - a statement that consistency was not important to the writers of the Bible is anything other than simple rhetoric. Quote:
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Notice also that Dave is trying to have his cake an eat it here. He has just spent most of his post saying that consistency and style are "Occidental" concepts and not relevant to the Torah - yet he presents his version of the narratives as having "no apparent contradictions in style"; judging them by the very concepts that he is claiming it is not valid to judge them by. He is, of course, wrong when claiming consistency in style and lack of contradictions, anyway. His splitting of the flood account leaves the usual problems in the text (were there two of each clean animal, or fourteen? were the waters on the earth for 40 days or 150 days? and so on...) which the DH takes out because they end up in the separate accounts. Dave also said in an earlier post that we should expect to see both Elohim and Yahweh from the same author, because there are both used in different situations according to strict rules. By the DH splitting, one author uses Yahweh exclusively and the other uses Elohim exclusively (within this story, that is - they both use both in other places). By Dave's splitting, though, a single author switches between the two on almost a verse by verse basis - using both in exactly the same context. So what are these strict rules about usage of the two names, Dave? Tell us what they are, so we can see that the author is following them. |
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09-26-2007, 06:40 AM | #286 |
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Damn, you guys! By the time I've posted, you've pre-empted many of my points...
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09-26-2007, 06:43 AM | #287 |
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My apologies. You are, by the way, doing a superb job. When Dave is reduced to subterfuge and has to change his original claims, then you have shown how clearly vacuous his points are to the uninitiated lurker. :notworthy:
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09-26-2007, 06:49 AM | #288 |
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AFDave has demonstrated many times that doesn't understand consilience in the scientific realm. Why do you expect him to understand it here?
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09-26-2007, 06:51 AM | #289 | ||
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But if you really ARE prepared to discuss it... why don't you start a thread? Call me cynical, but I suspect that if I were to do it, I'd be just cluttering the boards with another ignored thread. Here's a nice diagram for the OP: (from the New American Bible, St. Joseph edition) ...And a link to kick things off... Quote:
Now, by all means, let's get back to your ongoing destruction of your own "Tablet Theory", Dave. |
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09-26-2007, 06:53 AM | #290 | ||
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Dean ...
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Your comparison with the Black Death scenario is ridiculous. You are trying to somehow say that in the same way as our knowledge has increased about germs, the DH advocates knowledge had increased, thus enabling them to explain the Genesis text better than the Jews themselves??!! Gimme a break. Besides, their knowledge was actually very poor. They either weren't aware of or ignored the evidence or archaeology. |
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