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Old 08-17-2009, 07:18 AM   #101
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Hi Folks,

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Originally Posted by show_no_mercy
Both events are possible, and I think that both events happened. Which is why I think it's a hopeless endeavor to try to find any sort of "historical Jesus" from Paul's letters. The MSS evidence is abjectly one-sided - e.g. why would any orthodox Christian keep around manuscripts of Paul's letters that contradicted or didn't explicitly support "orthodox" dogma?.
There is a huge logistical problem in these types of theories of textual changes in any NT documents, especially if ascribed to some type of orthodoxy or apologetics. Bible texts were written and translated and disseminated in multiple languages over a wide geographical area to groups of various suasions by the end of the 2nd century, before the institution of any substantive "orthodoxy" establishment, (About 2 centuries later.) An establishment that itself had major geographical and language limitations and internal doctrinal non-uniformities.

Thus any significant doctoring, on any side, in purpose or accidental, is very likely (understatement) to leave a marker in the extant manuscript evidences. As in fact did often occur.

e.g. 1 John 1:18 and 1 Timothy 3:16 had differences that, whether caused originally accidentally or on purpose by copyists, might be thereafter copied and transmitted with the doctrinal implications considered, especially if the mixed manuscript evidence was noted. As a sidenote I think that Ehrman has a lot of this backwards and should first be compared to Dean Burgon's treatise on orthodox corruption and then additional examination. However all of that is not my point here.

This marker of mixed manuscript evidence would be that much greater on full verses and that much greater on whole sections (Pericope Adultera, ending of Mark). And this is true whatever the cause of the original divergence.

Thus any theory of non-extant individual section redactions must come up with a bypass mechanism for the early NT transmission into multiple languages and wide geographical areas to diverse groups. This I have never seen done, not even remotely.

(On a smaller level this comes up with Hort's primitive corruptions as well .. although he can try to push the initial changes way back close to authorship .. e.g. 1st century, as a bypass. Nobody tries to defend that today, much like I have seen nobody really try to defend the redaction theories on a level that takes early NT transmission into account.)

Shalom,
Steven Avery

Hi Steven,

You are correct, the fingerprints of textual changes are often left behind. But i think you underestimate the suppression and destruction (or at least the failure to copy) alternative texts, especially those produced by heretics. Often times, the only mention we have of these alternate texts are within the rebutals of the Heresiologists. A prime example is that no source copy of of Marion's recension of the Pauline epistles survives. We have a mutitude of clues that it existed, and can recreate it with a good degree of accuracy (especially Ggalatians and Romans), but the fact remains that an entire alternate version of the PE disappeared from the textual record.

The Pauline epistles were allegedly written by a first century apostle by the end of the 50's CE. Yet we don't find any extant manuscript until 150 to 200 years later. Do you imagine that the apostle wrote the canonical version just as we read it translated in the KJV today? Well a few faith based scholars might. But during that centuries long gap, the great doctrinal wars of the second century raged concerning the nature of Christ, the nature of God, and place of the Hebrew Scriptures in Christianity.

Tertullian made a very frank admission. He accused Marcion of corrupting the gospel, and the Macionites accused the proto-orthodox of the same thing. And we can see the redactions that occurred as both sides modified the scriptures for secterian advantage.

Best,
Jake
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Old 08-17-2009, 07:28 AM   #102
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But Condi is a real human being.
My point was, when a writer says "I regard X from a Y point of view," he is not implying that he believes X is a Y.

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It is not just 2 Cor 5:16. There are numerous places in the undisputed letters where Paul admits that "Christ" is a "stumbling block" or "folly" to outsiders.
As I recall, it was the notion of Christ's having been crucified that was a stumbling block to outsiders. That is, it was the manner of the messiah's death, not the death itself, that was hard for people to accept.

I'll have to put the rest of your post on hold for a while. I'll try to get back to it right away.
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Old 08-17-2009, 07:42 AM   #103
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Tertullian made a very frank admission. He accused Marcion of corrupting the gospel, and the Macionites accused the proto-orthodox of the same thing. And we can see the redactions that occurred as both sides modified the scriptures for secterian advantage.

Best,
Jake
But, it is not really known if the writer that used the name Tertullian was truthful when he made accusations towards Marcion since this writer did not acknowledge at any time, that the Pauline letters were corrupted by the Church.

Once you admit that the so-called proto-orthodox manipulated the Pauline Epistles without ever acknowledging their forgeries, then Tertullian's accusation against Marcion may indeed be false.
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Old 08-17-2009, 08:00 AM   #104
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This logic has nothing to do with history or historiography. We are dealing with an unplumbed collection of traditions whose veracity apparently cannot be tested. You have failed to produce any functional test that would be acceptable to a real historian.
Actually it does. No one doubts that various elements about Jesus' minitry are multiply attested in source and form via Mark and Paul except mythicists. The case is iron clad without arguments to Pauline silence. No amount of special pleading by you or anyone else on the internet can change that. The whole case of mythcisim and agnosticism rests exclusively on that leg. If you still accept it after that, it indicates more about your personality than ancient history. Dating Paul and all the gospels to the second century or saying the NT is too unstable to used textually are even more laughable.
BS...

The fact that the gospels are a collection of fairy tales is the leg, (more like a trunk...), that scepticism stands on.

The rest is simply observation based on the available evidence...
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Old 08-17-2009, 08:02 AM   #105
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Hi Folks,

There is a huge logistical problem in these types of theories of textual changes in any NT documents, especially if ascribed to some type of orthodoxy or apologetics. Bible texts were written and translated and disseminated in multiple languages over a wide geographical area to groups of various suasions by the end of the 2nd century, before the institution of any substantive "orthodoxy" establishment, (About 2 centuries later.) An establishment that itself had major geographical and language limitations and internal doctrinal non-uniformities.

Thus any significant doctoring, on any side, in purpose or accidental, is very likely (understatement) to leave a marker in the extant manuscript evidences. As in fact did often occur.

e.g. 1 John 1:18 and 1 Timothy 3:16 had differences that, whether caused originally accidentally or on purpose by copyists, might be thereafter copied and transmitted with the doctrinal implications considered, especially if the mixed manuscript evidence was noted. As a sidenote I think that Ehrman has a lot of this backwards and should first be compared to Dean Burgon's treatise on orthodox corruption and then additional examination. However all of that is not my point here.

This marker of mixed manuscript evidence would be that much greater on full verses and that much greater on whole sections (Pericope Adultera, ending of Mark). And this is true whatever the cause of the original divergence.

Thus any theory of non-extant individual section redactions must come up with a bypass mechanism for the early NT transmission into multiple languages and wide geographical areas to diverse groups. This I have never seen done, not even remotely.

(On a smaller level this comes up with Hort's primitive corruptions as well .. although he can try to push the initial changes way back close to authorship .. e.g. 1st century, as a bypass. Nobody tries to defend that today, much like I have seen nobody really try to defend the redaction theories on a level that takes early NT transmission into account.)

Shalom,
Steven Avery

Hi Steven,

You are correct, the fingerprints of textual changes are often left behind. But i think you underestimate the suppression and destruction (or at least the failure to copy) alternative texts, especially those produced by heretics. Often times, the only mention we have of these alternate texts are within the rebutals of the Heresiologists. A prime example is that no source copy of of Marion's recension of the Pauline epistles survives. We have a mutitude of clues that it existed, and can recreate it with a good degree of accuracy (especially Ggalatians and Romans), but the fact remains that an entire alternate version of the PE disappeared from the textual record.

The Pauline epistles were allegedly written by a first century apostle by the end of the 50's CE. Yet we don't find any extant manuscript until 150 to 200 years later. Do you imagine that the apostle wrote the canonical version just as we read it translated in the KJV today? Well a few faith based scholars might. But during that centuries long gap, the great doctrinal wars of the second century raged concerning the nature of Christ, the nature of God, and place of the Hebrew Scriptures in Christianity.

Tertullian made a very frank admission. He accused Marcion of corrupting the gospel, and the Macionites accused the proto-orthodox of the same thing. And we can see the redactions that occurred as both sides modified the scriptures for secterian advantage.

Best,
Jake
I always wondered what the supposed first edition of Tertullians cited work, as cited by the author himself, read like...
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Old 08-17-2009, 08:08 AM   #106
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Hi Folks,

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Originally Posted by show_no_mercy
So where is Marcion's canon? Where's the complete Egerton gospel? What about the Ebionite Matthew? The Valentinian version of John? You're operating under the assumption that every single MSS that was ever written by Christians is still extant,
Maybe you should reread what I wrote. The context is supposed modifications to existing manuscripts that ARE extant and were :

copied and translated and disseminated into multiple languages over wide geographical areas in the first two centuries of the Christian movement.

Why you think that is related to non-extant mss is the puzzle. You can develop 100s of theories about non-extant manuscripts .. and they would have absolutely nothing to do with my discussion.

If you can discuss the issue .. fine.
If not, please try to avoid strawman diversion.

At least try to note what I am actually referencing .. the supposed conjectured redactions (a major part of this thread) to the New Testament texts that have no extant manuscript evidence whatsoever, in any language. I am trying to see if anybody even has a theory of modification and transmission that addresses the humongous problems in these invisible redaction concepts.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 08-17-2009, 08:14 AM   #107
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Why you think that is related to non-extant mss is the puzzle. You can develop 100s of theories about non-extant manuscripts .. and they would have absolutely nothing to do with my discussion.
[/COLOR]
You should reign in your wanton accusations of "straw man". What you quoted me on was specifically what I responded to you about. If you weren't responding to my post then why did you quote me? You bringing up the extant manuscripts while I was talking about the doctrinal battles between the "orthodox" and the "heretics" is in itself a strawman.
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Old 08-17-2009, 08:24 AM   #108
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Hi Folks,

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Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
You are correct, the fingerprints of textual changes are often left behind.
Ok, we agree on that. One language will have 90% of the manuscripts with one variant, while another language will have 90% or even 100% of the manuscripts with an alternative variant. In some cases you have closer to 50-50. The three principle languages being Greek, Latin and Syriac, yet extending to a number of other languages as well.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
i think you underestimate the suppression and destruction (or at least the failure to copy) alternative texts, especially those produced by heretics.
As in my discussion with show_no_mercy, that is irrelevant to my post. It might be barely relevant if you showed that those texts were copied into multiple languages and had wide geographical circulation.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
an entire alternate version of the PE disappeared from the textual record.
This still does not address my discussion, although at least it is in the same league.

If you get around to explaining how a text that was circulating in Greek, Latin, Syriac and other languages over a wide-ranging area had sections added or removed or radically changed, without a trace, then we will be on course. What century ? What administrations ? What happened to all the earlier manuscripts in the diverse languages ?

It looks like you want to limit all the potential redactions given by the posters here to the early 2nd century, is that correct ?

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 08-17-2009, 08:35 AM   #109
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Hi Folks,

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Originally Posted by show_no_mercy
If you weren't responding to my post then why did you quote me? You bringing up the extant manuscripts while I was talking about the doctrinal battles between the "orthodox" and the "heretics" is in itself a strawman.
That should be very clear from my post. Your theories, and those of spin and others, are predicated upon rewritings of the Pauline epistles and other NT writings, with no extant manuscript evidence whatsoever. I could go back in the thread and find multiple discussions of these conjectured "redactions" .. often posted as virtual factoids.

So I simply pointed out the major difficulty with this theory of redaction and asked how you would get around it (see my first post on thread).

e.g. you might say ..

"these redactions occurred by an unknown roman church edict that was accepted throughout north africa, spain, syria and armenia and other lands around 425 AD. The redactions were then put in place in Latin, Greek, Syriac and Coptic manuscripts, and others"

And the sense of the response, historically, textually, transmissionally, could then be considered.

Instead I have a received responses that have not remotely addressed my question.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 08-17-2009, 09:02 AM   #110
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Wow, what a dependable site! I've already supplied with instances from the LXX that clearly show you that this stuff is rubbish.
Hang on a sec - are you saying that the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament is a fundy work? Wasn't this Kittel guy a Tubingen dude? Was he a fundie?

I guess the fundy website could be misquoting, I don't have the 10-volume work to hand myself
OK. I pull my horns in a bit. The name of the document says a lot for you though, or at least it should. I use Liddell and Scott as a relatively neutral source.

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Also, bear in mind that that definition is digging into the past, the original uses of the word by the ancient Greeks. Did the word continue to have such connotations into the LXX? Seemingly, sometimes it did, sometimes it didn't, but I think it extremely unlikely that people for whom military victory was part of their meme would have been insensitive to the ancient connotation: it's ready-made to apply to some kind of victory that Messianists might crow about.

So are you definitely saying the TDNT definition quoted by the fundie website is wrong?
It doesn't reflect what we can see in the LXX or in Josephus, does it?

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OK, but there has to have been a victory for there to be peace.
Umm, what about an alliance?

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The good news is that you can prepare for the coming of the messiah. Repent. Be baptized. Whoooosh. You're a new man. You are now ready, so let's wait together.
I see what you are saying now: that the fact that there was the possibility of baptismal preparation for the coming of the Messiah was itself a kind of good news.

Pretty weak kind of "good news", if you ask me, compared to the idea that the saviour had already been and that the kingdom is already established, here and now, if you only have eyes to see ...
Who are you to judge? What have you got against messianists who are telling you that the messiah is coming and will change everything and for you to be a part of it, you need to repent and be baptized, then you can share in the new future?

Bleating about this stuff does mean that you don't have any real problems against the scenario, right?


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