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08-17-2009, 07:18 AM | #101 | ||
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Hi Steven, You are correct, the fingerprints of textual changes are often left behind. But i think you underestimate the suppression and destruction (or at least the failure to copy) alternative texts, especially those produced by heretics. Often times, the only mention we have of these alternate texts are within the rebutals of the Heresiologists. A prime example is that no source copy of of Marion's recension of the Pauline epistles survives. We have a mutitude of clues that it existed, and can recreate it with a good degree of accuracy (especially Ggalatians and Romans), but the fact remains that an entire alternate version of the PE disappeared from the textual record. The Pauline epistles were allegedly written by a first century apostle by the end of the 50's CE. Yet we don't find any extant manuscript until 150 to 200 years later. Do you imagine that the apostle wrote the canonical version just as we read it translated in the KJV today? Well a few faith based scholars might. But during that centuries long gap, the great doctrinal wars of the second century raged concerning the nature of Christ, the nature of God, and place of the Hebrew Scriptures in Christianity. Tertullian made a very frank admission. He accused Marcion of corrupting the gospel, and the Macionites accused the proto-orthodox of the same thing. And we can see the redactions that occurred as both sides modified the scriptures for secterian advantage. Best, Jake |
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08-17-2009, 07:28 AM | #102 | |
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My point was, when a writer says "I regard X from a Y point of view," he is not implying that he believes X is a Y.
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I'll have to put the rest of your post on hold for a while. I'll try to get back to it right away. |
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08-17-2009, 07:42 AM | #103 | |
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Once you admit that the so-called proto-orthodox manipulated the Pauline Epistles without ever acknowledging their forgeries, then Tertullian's accusation against Marcion may indeed be false. |
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08-17-2009, 08:00 AM | #104 | ||
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The fact that the gospels are a collection of fairy tales is the leg, (more like a trunk...), that scepticism stands on. The rest is simply observation based on the available evidence... |
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08-17-2009, 08:02 AM | #105 | ||
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08-17-2009, 08:08 AM | #106 | |
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Hi Folks,
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copied and translated and disseminated into multiple languages over wide geographical areas in the first two centuries of the Christian movement. Why you think that is related to non-extant mss is the puzzle. You can develop 100s of theories about non-extant manuscripts .. and they would have absolutely nothing to do with my discussion. If you can discuss the issue .. fine. If not, please try to avoid strawman diversion. At least try to note what I am actually referencing .. the supposed conjectured redactions (a major part of this thread) to the New Testament texts that have no extant manuscript evidence whatsoever, in any language. I am trying to see if anybody even has a theory of modification and transmission that addresses the humongous problems in these invisible redaction concepts. Shalom, Steven Avery |
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08-17-2009, 08:14 AM | #107 |
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You should reign in your wanton accusations of "straw man". What you quoted me on was specifically what I responded to you about. If you weren't responding to my post then why did you quote me? You bringing up the extant manuscripts while I was talking about the doctrinal battles between the "orthodox" and the "heretics" is in itself a strawman.
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08-17-2009, 08:24 AM | #108 | |||
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Hi Folks,
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If you get around to explaining how a text that was circulating in Greek, Latin, Syriac and other languages over a wide-ranging area had sections added or removed or radically changed, without a trace, then we will be on course. What century ? What administrations ? What happened to all the earlier manuscripts in the diverse languages ? It looks like you want to limit all the potential redactions given by the posters here to the early 2nd century, is that correct ? Shalom, Steven Avery |
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08-17-2009, 08:35 AM | #109 | |
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Hi Folks,
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So I simply pointed out the major difficulty with this theory of redaction and asked how you would get around it (see my first post on thread). e.g. you might say .. "these redactions occurred by an unknown roman church edict that was accepted throughout north africa, spain, syria and armenia and other lands around 425 AD. The redactions were then put in place in Latin, Greek, Syriac and Coptic manuscripts, and others" And the sense of the response, historically, textually, transmissionally, could then be considered. Instead I have a received responses that have not remotely addressed my question. Shalom, Steven Avery |
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08-17-2009, 09:02 AM | #110 | ||||||
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Bleating about this stuff does mean that you don't have any real problems against the scenario, right? spin |
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