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09-08-2011, 12:32 AM | #401 |
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09-08-2011, 03:44 AM | #402 | |
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You claimed that a later interpolator would not have used the number 12, thereby making it unlikely that the Cor reference was a later interpolation. I pointed out that, in fact, Acts refers to 12 apostles, the eleven plus the replacement. That is it. In other words, your original objection is simply wrong. |
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09-08-2011, 04:14 AM | #403 | |
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The interpolation would have had to be early for this very reason, since the appearances in Matthew and Luke (and Acts) are to the eleven. It is unlikely this passage would have been composed by someone familiar with the later synoptics, as it aims at harmonizing traditions. My take on it is that it comes from a pro-Petrine community and is a first attempt to discredit Mark by showing that Paul was not the first who proclaimed Jesus' resurrection - which was the intent behind the women running away from the empty tomb in Mk 16:8 without telling anything to anyone. Best, Jiri |
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09-08-2011, 05:41 AM | #404 | ||
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09-08-2011, 06:24 AM | #405 | |
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Seriously, I'm not with you anyways. What is entailed by being 'less dead'? Do you mean, like, in a coma, from which one can be revived? The babes not being quite human after being born thing has also thrown me, but I think that's from a different passage. Not 6:2 |
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09-08-2011, 06:24 AM | #406 | |
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In case you are not up-to-date, most of NT scholarship today accepts that the original Mark ends at 16:8: the last twelve verses were appended later. Best, Jiri |
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09-08-2011, 06:29 AM | #407 |
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Ah I see. I misread 'later synoptics', and just read synoptics.
Ok. The 'pre-Matthew theory' versus the '2nd C theory' it is. About Mark, I was aware that there were shorter and longer endings, but I thought the phrase, 'And after this, Jesus himself sent out by means of them, from east to west, the sacred and imperishable proclamation of eternal salvation.' was in the shorter one? Anyhows, do the bit where you explain why you feel sure Hebrews 6:2 was referring to partly/figuratively dead. |
09-08-2011, 07:07 AM | #408 | ||
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Now, if you accept that, the post-mortem Jesus appearances to disciples happen contra to what Mark put down as gospel, i.e. the creed of the disciples in Jerusalem very unlikely originated with the proclamation of Jesus being resurrected from the dead. Quote:
Best, Jiri |
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09-08-2011, 07:14 AM | #409 | ||
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Now, which is it to be? *ETA: Perhaps I was hasty. You do also still have 'duffers' and 'crapping on', which, as far as I can see, are quite popular also. |
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09-08-2011, 09:50 AM | #410 | ||
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I view this as part of the larger redactional exercise occuring towards the later half of the 2nd century, the time when I believe Luke/Acts was completed, along with the pastorals and the Paulines were made safe for catholic consumption. A whole scale re-packaging of the apostle of the heretics. In other words, at the time of the formation of the orthodox canon. Somewhere between Polycarp and Ireneus, though nearer to Ireneaus, would be my guess. Although, I do agree that one of Mark's purposes was to discredit supposed historical witness. |
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