Wads4

I am not sure what all the above means, if anything,-but I understand "Emmanuel" means "God -with-us",-which of course bears no resemblance to Jesus,="Saviour."

Diogenes the Cynic

The name comes from Isaiah 7:14 which Matthew misconstrued as a Messianic prophecy (largely based on the mistranslation of the Hebrew word, almah ["young woman"] to parthenos ["virgin"] in the Greek Septuagint). In context the Isaiah verse has nothing to do with the Messiah. Matthew does a lot of that kind of thing- he tries to cite decontextualized fragments from the Septuagint and recast them as "fulfilled prphecies."

Amaleq13

Do you have a specific quote? It is my understanding that Wells' actual position has only changed in that he currently considers it possible (likely?) that a historical figure existed to inspire Q but that the Gospel Jesus is a mythical construct.

Sheshbazzar

And "Shibboleth" bears no resembance to "Sibboleth"?

Sheshbazzar

It is interesting to note that prior to my first post in this thread,
Posts #1, #2, #3, #4, and #7 all gave a similar name, "Yeshu", in the original post, ("Joshua"-Toto in #2) "Yeshua" by spin in #3, "Yeshua" by Vorkosigan in #4, and "Yeshu", "Yeshua" and "Yehoshua" by Joe Wallack in post #7

And these posts represent only a small sampling of the general consensus of biblical scholars all over the world and in virtually every language in which the Bible has been translated and its contents discussed.

As was pointed out in posts #5 by Fr. Andrew, and in #6 by spin, the LXX renders the Hebrew name 'JOSHUA' as 'IHSOUS', and that this practice was carried over in the Greek of the NT.

Now here is where it gets interesting, how does the LXX treat the word "Shibboleth" at Judges 12:6 ? Is "Shibboleth" unpronounceable in Greek?
Absolutely not! while it may be difficult, even nigh well impossible to properly SPELL "shibboleth" with the Greek alphabet, there is nothing preventing a Greek speaking person upon HEARING the word "shibboleth" being SPOKEN, from reciting it exactly as heard, although 'foreign' sounding to their ears.

In Judges 12, The Ephraimites COULD also have said "shibboleth" to pass the test, it was not a matter of simple ignorance, or of an actual inability to SPEAK as directed, but the paradigm that the Ephraimites held, first that they were in the majority, and that the Gileadites were inferior in position and authority ("fugitives") among the Ephraimites and the Manassites, and that therefor the Ephraimite way of SPEAKING and pronunciation was the 'correct' and 'acceptable' way.
So 42,000 are recorded to have been slain at the passages. With 41,999 dead bodies laying around the last Ephraimite opened his mouth and said "sibboleth". [As a side note, the number 42 and its exponents is used throughout the bible as a number signifying Divine judgment]

All of the Pastoral epistles are written to believers, that is to those already converted who had HEARD first hand the preaching of Paul and the other disciples, no attempt is made by the written word to convert any unbelievers, but only to give instruction to them who had already HEARD the word being preached by the disciples.
These men KNEW how to pronounce "shibboleth" and were able to teach all men who would listen how to pronounce "shibboleth", These men understood that all the things which had happened of old times, had happened for our instruction.
The Messiahs name gets altered in Greek, (are WE all Greeks?) because they had no 'sh' sounding letter, and they they could not (would not, will not) frame to pronounce it right.

Thus we have no problem with the pronunciation approved by the majority, it was foreordained, that the majority will not "call upon His Name" but denigrate it calling "Lord, Lord....."
Were I to see with my own eyes, one with the name 'IHSOUS' descend from the sky above, I would not believe in, nor trust him......"For his NAME's sake"