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11-12-2006, 10:55 AM | #421 | |
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Any person who claims an event or entity did not occur or exist, has no evidence of its occurence or existence. It is as simple as that. That is the basis of their conclusion, no evidence, nothing. The person has come up empty-handed, with a blank sheet. There is no credible information, no eyewitnesses, no person of interest, no DNA, no achaelogical evidence, no contemporary evidence. Now, if I say 'Solo' does not exist, then I have no evidence that 'Solo' exists. Now, if 'Solo' exists, he will prove his existence. There is no such thing as proof of non-existence. All entities that are deemed to be non-existent, it is because there is no proof of their existence, that is, no evidence. So, if a person claims that Jesus Christ or Saul/Paul were never real, it is because they have no evidence of their realities and no-one has proven that those entities actually lived. If you believe Jesus Christ or Saul/Paul actually lived based on speculation, then your belief is worthless. If I believe a missing person is dead and you believe the same missing person is alive, based on speculation, the person is still missing, and nothing has been resolved. Again, if you claim Jesus Christ or Saul/Paul exist, then I expect you to have evidence or proof. I believe Jesus Christ and Saul/Paul are mythical, I have nothing to demonstrate that they existed, nothing at all. Solo, what do you have, speculation, probabilities, plausibilties....? |
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11-12-2006, 12:07 PM | #422 | |
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Nor have I anywhere made the case that my interpretation is necessary, only that it is the most probable. And the syntax of Revelation 12.2 is και σημειον μεγα ωφθη εν τω ουρανω, which is perfectly compatible with the sign appearing in heaven. That the sign appeared in heaven does not tell us where the contents of that sign take place. Finally, there is a great difference of genre between Revelation and the epistles of Paul. What one sees in a vision and what one writes in a hortatory epistle can be two very different things. Ben. |
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11-12-2006, 12:30 PM | #423 | |
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No. I cannot match your knowledge base. You certainly know a lot more about ancient Latin usage, than I ever will, but, in this case, it was obvious that you were grasping at straws. But your arrogance, also evinced in the snide quote above, is your undoing. If you have to be right all the time, every time, in every particular, where is there any hope of learning from you at all? |
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11-12-2006, 12:46 PM | #424 | ||
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There is a great deal of scholarly discussion of the oral antecedents of the written Gospels. Just search "gospels+oral" in Googlebooks. I came up with this rather interesting work. |
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11-12-2006, 12:59 PM | #425 | |
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You should know what the art of rhetoric is. And you should also know that ridicule is not effective rhetoric. Ridicule based on a typo is so puerile, it disgusts me. The reason that Jesus appears in the gospels is to establish his godhood. If not so, then there is no basis for the religion of Christianity at all. A god is among other things a supernatural entity. Now I could spend hours discussing the simple definitions of "supernatural" and "entity." We could waste pages and pages on that. It is clear that the gospels were indeed trying to identify Jesus as a historical character, but only as a spin in establishing his godhood. They are religious tracts, not historical documents. I hope I am not going farther from what I have read in the posts of this thread. There is good scholarship based on texts and cross referencing and civilized debate. Then there are those who resort to ridicule, pointless minutia and constantly citing their laurels. |
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11-12-2006, 01:01 PM | #426 | |
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11-12-2006, 01:58 PM | #427 | ||||||||||
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It is? Aren't you confusing establishing Jesus as God's Messiah/definitive emissary (within a context in which there were other competitors and candidates for this claim) with establishing Jesus as God? Quote:
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And even if it was their aim, what purpose did establishing Jesus' "godhood" (an undefined term if there ever was one)t serve -- especially in the context of the intra and extramural debates about what God wants of his people and where the will and character of the God of Israel is most bindingly and decisively known in which the early church and the Gospels arose? Quote:
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JG |
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11-12-2006, 02:06 PM | #428 | ||
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11-12-2006, 03:18 PM | #429 | |
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What, in you judgment, is the evidence that is lacking in the scholarly discussions, say, of Bultmann, Dibelius, Schmidt, Jeremias, Dalmann, Brown, Gerhardsson, Taylor, Dunn, Meier, and Crossan, for their claims of oral tradition standing behind much of what is in the Gospels? What is it in the methodology they have employed to establish the existence, as well as the nature and extent or substance, of pre-gospel oral tradition that you find to be "unreliable"? In fact, what do you think -- or know -- that methodology is? Would you also say that those who assert an oral tradition behind such things as the Mishna or the classical Midrash or even 1 Maccabees or Homer have not substantiated their claims with evidence or used a reliable methodology to come the conclusions about oral tradition in and behind these works that they have come to? Jeffrey Gibson |
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11-12-2006, 03:28 PM | #430 | ||
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There is a review here. Quote:
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