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01-07-2008, 12:37 PM | #41 | ||
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What I meant though was that Sumerian fragments of the Enuma Elish don't exalt a singular all powerful God, as is the case with Marduk, Ashur (the assyrian version) and the Hebrew YHWH. |
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01-07-2008, 12:39 PM | #42 | ||
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I'm not as familiar with the Quran. |
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01-07-2008, 01:18 PM | #43 |
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Please remember that the pentateuch is most likely oral tradition, very old, committed to writing many generations down the road. The language used reflects ancient polytheistic origins, while the translation may have more to do with the translators struggling with the changing form from plural to singular etc. The doctrine of the trinity surely informs the translators, in a cruel sort of circular dance. The doctrine stems from this passage and a few others, and the doctrine affects the translation.
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01-07-2008, 11:30 PM | #44 |
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You are correct that the most you can say about zhen is that is honorific first-person pronoun. In English it is easy to see a distinction between a singular and plural pronoun because of the way verbs conjugate. Since you don't conjugate verbs in Chinese, I guess this facet of the 'royal we' might not be equivalent to zhen. I don't know enough about Chinese to know if using zhen men would make sense to pluralize zhen (I doubt it). So let me then restate what I meant to argue: The concept of having a special first person honorific is probably older than the 13th century.
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01-07-2008, 11:34 PM | #45 |
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We've got a Torah at home and access to Hebrew skillz. Either there is many gods referenced in the Torah, or ancient Jews sucked monkey balls when it comes to poetry. Just an opinion.
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01-08-2008, 04:49 AM | #46 |
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Here's the thing, folks. If you want to retroject the royal plural into the bible, you have to show that the god person uses it regularly -- or even that anyone uses the royal plural. Problem is, you can't. Either it is a functional linguistic manifestation and it is used regularly, or you have no grounds to talk about a royal plural.
As it is, it should be clear why people talk about the royal plural here: they don't have a better explanation for the plurals in Gen 1:26. Well, people who don't know any linguistics will be happy with this ad hoc kludge. And what does Quranic Arabic have to do with a text that was written at least 700 years before? Obviously nothing -- at least directly. That fact that one leaves the Hebrew and goes to Arabic is because there is nothing available in Hebrew to argue from. spin |
01-08-2008, 06:57 AM | #47 | |
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You're right. The Quran is tangential, at best. I misunderstood Salam's point anyway. Back to topic: Do you think the assembly of gods of which YHWH was a part in discussing the creation of Man is a reflection of the mesopotamian assembly of gods holding council to discuss the creation of Man? IOW: Do you think the plural elohim is derived of the anunnaki "those from heaven to earth came" or din.gir "righteous ones?" of the earlier cultures? Regards |
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01-08-2008, 07:14 AM | #48 | |
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I think, by the time the text was redacted in Hebrew, the divine council was a reduced structure of demoted deities in the form of angels of various types. That's clearly what Jubilees shows. spin |
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01-08-2008, 07:27 AM | #49 | ||
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And the demoted deities, angels et al., this structure of divine council, from where were they reduced? Thanks. |
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01-08-2008, 07:22 PM | #50 | |||
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