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 In Mark Jesus was handed over to the Jews because Pilate had no opinion on the matter and the Jews had made the charge for which Jesus did not, and could not, make a defense. Pilate felt obligated to please the crowd as if it was a civil trial where Jesus was guilty if he had no statement of defence. Luke has Pilate identified as "man" three times while the Jews insisted that he needed to be crucified as Jew. In John they made it very clear that the Jews had their law and according to that Law he had to be crucified. I mean it is so obvious that they were after Jesus the Jew and not Jesus the man.  | 
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			Oh Lord!  How did I get trapped in this netherworld post? 
		
		
		
		
		
		
		
	Mods: Is it possible to add a smilie with a pair of lips and a finger bobbing up and down on them? Over and out! dq  | 
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 See, the law was given to Moses for the conviction of sin and thus not to stop sin wherefore the conviction of Jesus to die on the cross (the cross was the actual sin nature of Joseph) fulfilled the Law in its real purpose. I guess it goes two ways. The sheep must follow the good shepherd (they know his voice) to make the lost sheep known and so a certain stream of consciousness is needed to make sin known. But if the Law is fulfilled in the conviction of sin it must also be true that there will be no obedient sheep in heaven.  
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