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Old 04-20-2009, 03:16 PM   #171
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But that's precisely the point. The use and intent of the Pharisees was often no different from that of Jesus. Naturally the Pharisees were also arguing amongst themselves, but Jesus does not say anything which contradicts the views of the Pharisees of the time. Also, the Pharisees were not authority figures until after the end of the reigh of Herods (at which point there was a power vacuum which they filled). At the time Jesus was writing, the Pharisees were not an authority with any power to oppress. They had the same complaints about authority as Jesus did.
The religious authority (like a lot of people) use the law as a way to judge oppress and persecute people. Believing in following the law and believing that it’s ok to use the law as a weapon against people is completely different.
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It has been pointed out to you already on this forum that a highly patriarchal stance was taken for granted. Making out Jesus to be a feminist is like the Elizabeth films which make out that Elizabeth was interested in democracy and religious freedom. It's completely anachronistic. Nevertheless, I'm sure the term you were looking for was "proto-feminist" (i.e. forerunner to feminism), but I don't think Jesus qualifies for that either. Accepting the status quo, but not saying anything for or against it would normally be taken as indifference to the inequalities of society, not as active intent to make society equal.
That’s fine as long as it’s clear your position is based on an assumption not evidence. You want to use “proto-feminism”? Ok I figure that understanding the words in the context of the story and time would be a fairly easy ability but it definitely seems to give people more problems than I expect.

Again, he’s not accepting the status quo he is trying to create a meme to change it to a more equal society that didn’t exclude women in the plan.
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Yes and within those texts I find absolutely no evidence that he viewed them any differently from anyone else.
I don’t know how that’s possible. I think you mean you don’t see a quote given to you that says directly he was there for equality or treated women equally.
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If I ignored the social conventions of the time, I wouldn't be able to call Socrates a sexist. In another context, choosing to bathe so people don't have to wash your body later would actually seem charitable. On those grounds I could say "Socrates treated women well" and by your grounds I would have to call him a feminist. However, recognising that women were expected to deal with dead bodies and that Socrates was most likely avoiding his body being touched by them because he thought it might impurify him, I can assert a low opinion of women in Socrates' view. Even so, does that make Socrates 'sexist'? He isn't actively slandering women after all...
Why is Socrates considered a sexist now? He said specifically about not bothering women with having to wash a dead body. It’s about accepting your death. Like Jesus did.
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If we look at the gospels, there is no special treatment for women by Jesus. None of the disciples are women. Women are not spoken of favourably in stories he tells. None of his teachings encourage equality for women. Women are found at his tomb (because they are connected with death and deal with dead bodies) and women are preached to (because Jesus would tell his message to anyone who would listen - and let's not forget that this puts them on the level of theives and tax collectors). What reason do we have to claim that Jesus was bucking the trend?
Women are treated favorably. The overall point of the story is to provide salvation for humanity. If you need him to spell out what all that includes; for you to believe that it includes women not being beaten down in the new day, I’m sorry it’s not there. But since your position is just based on assumption and not evidence then I’ll stick with the rational position.

As far as female apostles here’s a response of mine from earlier in the post.
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As far as him not having women apostles, he was trying to implant the serving/self-sacrificing meme into the men, not the ladies. If he expected his apostles to suffer the same fate as him then he had good reason to spare the women that role. He’s giving an example for the men to follow that will give the women the opportunity to take back control. Beyond that there are the possibilities that women may not have made usable witnesses or he may have had female apostles that the early church edited out.
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You are still pushing that same old false dichotomy. Just because someone never says anything sexist, does not make them a feminist.
You are still playing the same games and failing to present your position to eliminate the possibility of a false dichotomy. What was Jesus again if he’s not a feminist or a sexist??? Oh yea he’s a Jew. No wait a theist; that explains it perfectly.
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You really believe that don't you?
Rulers always appeal to the gods of their people. It does not make the society any better. Constantine was served by his people, not the other way around.
What you are talking about is democracy and the history of Christendom has very little of that....
Yes the rulers always use what the people believe in to control them, but blaming the religion instead of the ruler is as dumb as believing in the ruler because of the religion. All you can see is the bible and the cross the rulers are holding and are failing to see the ruler himself.

I’m not talking about democracy. The authority can serve the people in any system I would guess. It’s just only likely if the people have some democratic control over their leaders but not necessary.
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Thank you for making my point. He is only sacrificing from a mythicist perspective. He only makes a sacrifice if he is God (or working with the magical divine power of God). If he is a historical human being, he was simply executed against his will.
Or knew that ticking off the authority would get him killed and planned using it to his advantage.
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Why would Pilate have spoken to the historical Jesus? He didn't formally attend crucifixions. Pilate's involvement in the story is an attempt to appeal to potential Roman converts.
Because the author wanted to show that he could save his life but didn’t to show the reader that was part of the intent and that this wasn’t just a normal killing of a prophet but a sacrifice.
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Okay, you seem to be making some concessions now. Previously you were claiming we must presume he was promoting women's rights until we see evidence otherwise. Now you are saying that we cannot make any presumptions without evidence.
I’m not conceding anything. It’s you who are operating on assumptions. I’ve provided my evidence for belief that he was a female friendly savior/proto-feminist. Your only response is that you’re not convinced. No evidence of him believing them to be less than equal or planned for them to have a lower place in the society he was trying to create.
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Calling someone a feminist requires some sign that they were actively involved with promoting women's rights. We see no such evidence from Jesus, so we must simply presume he was an average Joe. He might have been interested in treating women well, but we have no reason to think he was pushing for women's rights.
An average Joe sacrificing his life. I don’t understand why from the mythicist perspective you are unable to read the story as it is presented and have to imagine some other scenario and individual then what is presented in the story.

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How can you possibly know that he was involved in such a 'plan' when he never said so? Why should we presume that anyone at the time had such a plan when it so clearly failed to come to fruition?
You use some critical thinking to determine what the point of all this is. If it was clear and straightforward then there wouldn’t be all this confusion would there? The vine/plan may not have come to fruition yet but I can see the faith spreading through the gentiles into Rome all the way to make a Christian nation in a new world as growth of the vine. It’s not like the final word on Christ has been decided nor his final influence.
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Old 04-20-2009, 03:29 PM   #172
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According to this, the movement for equality for women in Jewish law started around 1970, well after Jesus. Up to that time, women might have been treated more or less fairly, but were universally considered to occupy a separate sphere. They were exempt from certain commandments, and they were excluded from leadership positions. Their testimony was not allowed in court on the same basis as men's. There was no equality in marriage (there still is not, for the orthodox.)

This is the law that Jesus announced he would not change, not one jot or tittle (Matthew 5:18).

Do you have any clue about these issues? You don't seem to know what the law is, or what feminism is, or what form of government the ancient Hebrews followed.
The Modern feminism movement began in 1970. The idea of female equality goes back to as soon as someone suggested they weren’t. Women haven’t had the chance to visibly unite and argue for their freedom until just recently. Until then they had to do more covert operations like champion more female friendly men or men who were pushing forward ideas that could benefit them. Sound like anyone you can think of?
Matthew 5:17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished. Therefore whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven.
He said they wouldn’t pass until all that was accomplished not that he wouldn’t have changed them if he could but the reality is they are static no matter which understanding of the law you are using. Which commandments should he have relaxed specifically to prove he was for equality? He eased up on punishing the adulteress and said that men shouldn’t be able to just divorce their wives and said Moses only allowed divorce because of the hardness of their hearts. John 8:7 Matthew 19:18
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Old 04-20-2009, 03:51 PM   #173
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According to this, the movement for equality for women in Jewish law started around 1970, well after Jesus. Up to that time, women might have been treated more or less fairly, but were universally considered to occupy a separate sphere. They were exempt from certain commandments, and they were excluded from leadership positions. Their testimony was not allowed in court on the same basis as men's. There was no equality in marriage (there still is not, for the orthodox.)

This is the law that Jesus announced he would not change, not one jot or tittle (Matthew 5:18).

Do you have any clue about these issues? You don't seem to know what the law is, or what feminism is, or what form of government the ancient Hebrews followed.
The Modern feminism movement began in 1970. The idea of female equality goes back to as soon as someone suggested they weren’t. Women haven’t had the chance to visibly unite and argue for their freedom until just recently.
The modern feminist movement began in the 19th century, and most of the early feminists spent their time fighting the sexism inherent in organized religion. 1970 was the second wave of feminism, and Jewish and Christian feminists had to explain why searching for equality in religion was not like blacks asking for an equal opportunity to join the KKK.

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Until then they had to do more covert operations like champion more female friendly men or men who were pushing forward ideas that could benefit them.
Did you just make this up? It has no basis in history that I know of. Women in the Roman Empire identified first with their class and family. Aristocratic women had more opportunities than lower class men, even if they had fewer rights that aristocratic men; they had their own roads to power. There was no concept of social or political equality among men, let alone equality between men and women.

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Sound like anyone you can think of?
Matthew 5:17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished. Therefore whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven.
He said they wouldn’t pass until all that was accomplished not that he wouldn’t have changed them if he could but the reality is they are static no matter which understanding of the law you are using. Which commandments should he have relaxed specifically to prove he was for equality? He eased up on punishing the adulteress and said that men shouldn’t be able to just divorce their wives and said Moses only allowed divorce because of the hardness of their hearts. John 8:7 Matthew 19:18
Jesus did not criticize Judaism for refusing to make women priests. He didn't call for women to be able to divorce abusive husbands. The law against adultery only applied to wives; Jesus didn't call for equality in enforcing the law, only a little humanity in how it was enforced (as most Jews in fact did.)
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Old 04-20-2009, 11:09 PM   #174
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Put it this way: Was Krishna just 'invented'? If not, was he most likely based on a real person? Do you think stories about Krishna protecting a town from flood by sheltering them under a mountain balanced on his little finger tell us anything about any supposed historical figure upon which Krishna might be based?
There are two major sources about Krishna: Bhagwat Puran an Mahabharat. The latter gives a very detailed information about the astronomical conditions on the eve of the Battle of Mahabharata. These conditions can be analsed by the modern astronomical software, and it has been done too. The date of Mahabharata turns out to be about 3200 Bc or so.


Question arises: Is that information authentic? Did someone later cook it up? For cooking and back calculation of a given disposition you need sophisticated soft ware or real SUPER BRAINS. Only conclusion is that they WERE observed as they were and recorded 5200 years ago. And Krishna has quite a prominent role in that Battle.



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Now consider some other figures: Dionysos, Herakles, Achilles, Eostre, Odin, Rama.
In case of Rama too such data exists, pointing to His time being about 7000 BC.

But in case of Jesus no data exists which can be analysed.

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How do these figures come to develop cults surrounding them? Why should we treat the stories which arise about Jesus any differently?
Treatment of stories and underlying evidence are two different things. In case of Jesus no evidence exists. It is surprising for a much prophecied saviour.
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Old 04-21-2009, 06:29 AM   #175
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Matthew 5:17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished. Therefore whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven.
He said they wouldn’t pass until all that was accomplished not that he wouldn’t have changed them if he could but the reality is they are static no matter which understanding of the law you are using. Which commandments should he have relaxed specifically to prove he was for equality? He eased up on punishing the adulteress and said that men shouldn’t be able to just divorce their wives and said Moses only allowed divorce because of the hardness of their hearts. John 8:7 Matthew 19:18
Isn't everyone equal in the kingdom of heaven? If the end was near then all social and economic distinctions would soon be obsolete. After God's messiah had triumphed over evil, the new world would be home to all God's children forever, isn't that the basic messianic vision?
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Old 04-21-2009, 06:47 AM   #176
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What was the real name of the character they call the historical Jesus? And when did he really die?
In Hebrew Y'shua. In Aramaic, Ieshoo.

When did he die? You want a date or physiological definition? The date would be ~early April or late March, in one of the years 27 thru 30 CE. (The exact date could be interpolated from the dates of Passover in that year. Is the exact date important?)
When did he die? When the Romans hung him on a cross and the weight of his body compressed his diaphragm so that he suffocated and no oxygen got to his brain for a period of 3-5 minutes.

For anyone interested in Jesus, my belief is that the only thing that is important is what he taught... just like Martin Luther King Jr, in 100 years, no one is going to care if he was human or diety, saint or sinner... all that matters is what he led his followers to create in society.
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Old 04-21-2009, 07:27 AM   #177
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What was the real name of the character they call the historical Jesus? And when did he really die?
In Hebrew Y'shua. In Aramaic, Ieshoo.
Yashua (Joshua) is Hebrew/Aramaic. Iesous (Jesus) is Greek.

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When did he die? When the Romans hung him on a cross and the weight of his body compressed his diaphragm so that he suffocated and no oxygen got to his brain for a period of 3-5 minutes.
Death by crucifixion lasted for hours, closer to days. That was the entire point of crucifixion. No one would die from being on a cross for only 3 hours unless they were already sickly or unhealthy to begin with.
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Old 04-21-2009, 07:42 AM   #178
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Death by crucifixion lasted for hours, closer to days. That was the entire point of crucifixion. No one would die from being on a cross for only 3 hours unless they were already sickly or unhealthy to begin with.
Actually it depends mostly on the manner of crucifixion, which no doubt varied from time to time, place to place, execution to execution.

http://www.centuryone.org/crucifixion2.html
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Death is this manner can be in, a manner of hours, or days depending on the manner in which the victim is affixed to the cross. If the victim is crucified with a small seat, a sedile, affixed to the uptight for minimum support in the region of the buttocks, death can be prolonged for hours and days.
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If, however, the victims are tied with their hands extended over their heads and left hanging, death can occur within an hour or, in minutes if the victims legs are nailed so that he cannot use his arms to elevate the body to exhale. For exhaling to occur in a normal manner two sets of muscles are needed, the diaphragm and. the intercostalis muscles between the ribs. With the victims being suspended by their arms directly over their heads, these sets of muscles cannot function properly which results in the victims inability to exhale and results in asphyxiation.
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Old 04-21-2009, 08:38 AM   #179
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Death by crucifixion lasted for hours, closer to days. That was the entire point of crucifixion. No one would die from being on a cross for only 3 hours unless they were already sickly or unhealthy to begin with.
Actually it depends mostly on the manner of crucifixion, which no doubt varied from time to time, place to place, execution to execution.

http://www.centuryone.org/crucifixion2.html

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If, however, the victims are tied with their hands extended over their heads and left hanging, death can occur within an hour or, in minutes if the victims legs are nailed so that he cannot use his arms to elevate the body to exhale. For exhaling to occur in a normal manner two sets of muscles are needed, the diaphragm and. the intercostalis muscles between the ribs. With the victims being suspended by their arms directly over their heads, these sets of muscles cannot function properly which results in the victims inability to exhale and results in asphyxiation.
Agreed, but I'm only using the popular imagery of Jesus' crucifixion. We actually don't know how he was crucified, if at all. All we have is a story.
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Old 04-21-2009, 08:49 AM   #180
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Agreed, but I'm only using the popular imagery of Jesus' crucifixion.
I could be mistaken, but isn't Jesus usually portrayed on the cross with his ankles nailed? If that's how he was actually crucified, then his diaphragm would have been none too happy. And I think the humiliation/deterrent factor is fulfilled by the process of being nailed. How long someone lasts on the cross, after having a shaft of iron run through their ankles, probably doesn't matter so much.
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