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View Poll Results: Were the gospels written in "good faith"? | |||
YES - and there is evidence to suggest that this is so. | 5 | 22.73% | |
YES - but there is no evidence to suggest that this is so. | 3 | 13.64% | |
NO - and there is evidence to suggest that this is so. | 9 | 40.91% | |
NO - but there is no evidence to suggest that this is so. | 2 | 9.09% | |
OTHER | 3 | 13.64% | |
Voters: 22. You may not vote on this poll |
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12-29-2009, 03:16 AM | #21 |
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The gentiles were the audience. The Greek civilisation was to be magnificently converted to the group of Christian INSIDERS. This was to be accompished by preaching the "Good Faith" of the gospels, although if the historical truth be known, this approach was augmented by Constantine's pragmatic use of the sword. With the assistance of Christianity and the Good Faith of the gospels, he single-handedly converted the entire Greek civilisation in the Roman Empire to Galilaeanism. It took another thousand years to recover and the mess has still not be clarified.
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12-29-2009, 11:22 AM | #22 | |||||||
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Your opinion, or mine, of their value to humanity is irrelevant to any inquiry into the motives with which their authors wrote them. |
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12-29-2009, 02:13 PM | #23 | |
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Then they back-date this thing (the bible we call it) to let all skeletons die and attached it to history where gawkers can look so they might believe and hawkers tell them to go look so they will believe, while in fact the very word believe (be-lief) has nothing to do with second hand opinions but with being one with our indoctrinated values wherein we are branded as one of their own. Hence the 'fishers of men' allegory is appropriate but I would call them people ranchers and we are a slave not just to their vices but also to their virtues from where liberty is found from the illusion that fostered us. The temple top, shoreline, Bethany, desert, Gethsamene, and all those places are mental stages or events and recurring events to help us get our ass out of purgatory so that our nocturnal past will also be a thing of the past. (Don't forget here that we are determinate creatures who's freedom to think is not equal to the freedom from thinking.) |
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12-29-2009, 03:13 PM | #24 | ||||
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Compliments of the seasons. |
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12-29-2009, 05:05 PM | #25 | ||
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12-29-2009, 05:07 PM | #26 | |
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12-29-2009, 05:09 PM | #27 | |||
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This is nothing new. |
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12-30-2009, 08:00 AM | #28 | ||||
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As a matter of general principle, I do not infer purposeful falsehood on the part of any writer from my personal assessment of how credible their writing is. I infer it from evidence, if there is any, that (1) they knew what they wrote to be false and (2) they wrote it with intention to deceive their readers. |
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12-30-2009, 02:40 PM | #29 |
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The Gospels as found canonised appear to be anonymous, but, it can be reasonable deduced that the authors who wrote that Jesus did exist as the offspring of the Holy Ghost of God, walked on water, transfigured, resurrected and ascended to heaven wrote known fiction.
By placing Jesus in Jerusalem and Judea, and making him a Jew, it is almost certain that there would have been no Gospels if the authors were historical. |
12-30-2009, 06:57 PM | #30 | ||||
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There are two separate considerations about the audience: (1) "Earlier Period Audience" Lets call the "Early Period Audience" the people who read the gospels before they were widely published c.325 CE. (2) "Later Period Audience" Lets call the "Later Period Audience" the political audience of the gospels from Nicaea onwards. When you say the intended audience knew it was an origins story are you referring to the 1st or 2nd or both audiences defined above? Quote:
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