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Old 11-16-2009, 02:50 AM   #101
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If a being with no actual verifiable history can be historical.
But not to forget, there was a well known prototypical Hebrew/Jewish 'Joshua' hero/saviour legendary figure well in place for hundreds of years before being co-opted by the Christian mythos.
True, but that is exaclty where I think Paul got the idea in the first place.
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Old 11-16-2009, 02:56 AM   #102
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Agreed.
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Old 11-16-2009, 06:38 AM   #103
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If a being with no actual verifiable history can be historical.
But not to forget, there was a well known prototypical Hebrew/Jewish 'Joshua' hero/saviour legendary figure well in place for hundreds of years before being co-opted by the Christian mythos.
True, but that is exaclty where I think Paul got the idea in the first place.
So, this would tie in perfectly with the statement from Paul: (Ro 16:7)
"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me."

In the first place, Paul was last.

1Co 15:8 -
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And last of all he was seen of me also, as of one born out of due time.
Paul admitted that he was not the first to see Jesus.

People saw Paul's Jesus before him.
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Old 11-16-2009, 06:46 AM   #104
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True, but that is exaclty where I think Paul got the idea in the first place.
So, this would tie in perfectly with the statement from Paul: (Ro 16:7)
"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me."

In the first place, Paul was last.

1Co 15:8 -
Quote:
And last of all he was seen of me also, as of one born out of due time.
Paul admitted that he was not the first to see Jesus.

People saw Paul's Jesus before him.
Interpolations...

(Romans ends at 15:33 and 1 Corinthians reference is post Pauline.)
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Old 11-16-2009, 07:45 AM   #105
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So, this would tie in perfectly with the statement from Paul: (Ro 16:7)
"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me."

In the first place, Paul was last.

1Co 15:8 -

Paul admitted that he was not the first to see Jesus.

People saw Paul's Jesus before him.
Interpolations...

(Romans ends at 15:33 and 1 Corinthians reference is post Pauline.)
You are now admitting that the Pauline Epistles as found canonised are late and mutilated.

If you are correct then the NT, as found canonised, is a compilation of mutilation.

It was not Marcion that mutilated the Pauline Epistles in the canon.

It was the Church writers.

Now, you must also admit then that there is really no credible evidence that Marcion had any Pauline letters in his possession. All the information about Marcion and the Pauline Epistles are from the same source that mutilated the Pauline Epistles and made bogus claims about the authorship of the same writings.

The Church writers claimed Marcion mutilated the entire Pauline Epistles except Philemon, but the Pastorals may have been written when Marcion was already dead, and after Paul had already expired.

The Church gave bogus information about the entire authorship and chronology of the NT.

What you have expiosed is that the Church may have writen the version of the Pauline Epistles found canonised.
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Old 11-16-2009, 07:56 AM   #106
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Interpolations...

(Romans ends at 15:33 and 1 Corinthians reference is post Pauline.)
You are now admitting that the Pauline Epistles as found canonised are late and mutilated.

If you are correct then the NT, as found canonised, is a compilation of mutilation.

It was not Marcion that mutilated the Pauline Epistles in the canon.

It was the Church writers.
I agree, though "now" would not be accurate.

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Now, you must also admit then that there is really no credible evidence that Marcion had any Pauline letters in his possession. All the information about Marcion and the Pauline Epistles are from the same source that mutilated the Pauline Epistles and made bogus claims about the authorship of the same writings.
I do not agree as I believe that Marcion was the first collector of Paul.

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The Church writers claimed Marcion mutilated the entire Pauline Epistles except Philemon, but the Pastorals may have been written when Marcion was already dead, and after Paul had already expired.
The church writers had their own agenda.

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The Church gave bogus information about the entire authorship and chronology of the NT.
For the most part, possibly.

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What you have expiosed is that the Church may have writen the version of the Pauline Epistles found canonised.
Yes, I believe that this is the case that the letters were edited. I think it was done around the time that cannonical Luke/Acts made their appearance. Around the time of Ireneaus.
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Old 11-16-2009, 09:35 AM   #107
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The Second Epistle of Peter is a book of the New Testament of the Bible, traditionally ascribed to Saint Peter, but in modern times widely regarded as pseudonymous.
It is the first New Testament book to treat other New Testament writings as scripture, 2 Peter was one of the last letters included in the New Testament canon; it quotes from and adapts Jude extensively, identifies Jesus with God, and addresses a threatening heresy which had arisen because the end and salvation had not occurred.
(Wiki)

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You must be referring to 2 Peter 1:16. Go ahead and look it up, and tell me your interpretation of it. Here is the full passage:
16We did not follow cleverly invented stories when we told you about the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but we were eyewitnesses of his majesty. 17For he received honor and glory from God the Father when the voice came to him from the Majestic Glory, saying, "This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased." 18We ourselves heard this voice that came from heaven when we were with him on the sacred mountain.
Is the bolded part a direct eyewitness statement if it was not written until between 80 and 150 in common era?
It is pretended to be a direct eyewitness statement, but it is a lie.
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Old 11-16-2009, 09:50 AM   #108
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So, this would tie in perfectly with the statement from Paul: (Ro 16:7)
"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me."

In the first place, Paul was last.

1Co 15:8 -

Paul admitted that he was not the first to see Jesus.

People saw Paul's Jesus before him.
Interpolations...

(Romans ends at 15:33 and 1 Corinthians reference is post Pauline.)
Indeed, "Paul" has to fit into the hokey story the Church is constructing (about having bishops whose lineage goes back to people who knew Christ personally) somehow. How? Well, he came late, naturally, after all the interesting stuff had happened (the stuff that involved the Jerusalem apostles-construed-as-personal-disciples).

The idea might actually have started quite innocently - after the Diaspora, the true origins of the movement were perhaps muddled, and the belief came about, amongst some Christians (Romans, Alexandrinians, perhaps), that some of the apostles must have known Christ personally. In reality, none of the Jerusalem people nor Paul had known the Christ of which they spoke, whom they proselytized about, personally. He was an entity they believed had existed (on the basis of Scripture and visionary experience), and worshipped, but not a human being they had known in their lives as a human being.

That's it right there, the central nubbity-nub of the whole barrel of confusions.

Further: it might be helped along by Jewish exiles, trying to lord it over the Roman church, trying to "capture" it in a sense - "What on earth have you guys been up to? Look, we come from that part of the world, our people are lineal descendants of the apostles - some of whom knew Christ personally".

Who would be any the wiser?

That might be the very seed idea of orthodoxy, in fact, because it does lead to a theology that can be interpreted as an intellectual construct based on words from the Master's mouth while he was living, instead of the more mystical, gnostic salvation "Paul" is talking about, and gospels derived from it - which are ten-a-penny.

One senses a sort of common-sense attitude in early orthodoxy. It seems to be a confluence of the hypothesized Jewish post-Diaspora influence noted above, plus the desire of (one senses) tidy, rationalist, Stoic-influenced Roman Christian minds, sensible Christians who wanted a bit of neatness and order in all this unruly movement, comprised of a gaggle of prophecies coming from the various communities who had descended from the "Paul"'s original visionary push (now, by the turn of the 2nd century, starting to turn into eclectic, syncretic Gnosticism).

Marcion is the last straw; they put a stop to prophecy, they discourage the construction of new gospels, and firm up a Canon based on their inherited visionary version of what Christ actually said - and fool themselves into believing that their bishops - the Jewish post-Diaspora connection again - are lineal descendants of the apostles, who (they believe, or would like others to believe) knew The Man personally. The visionary deliverances of their gospels (which are no different, in essence, from any other groups') are special, because of this supposed personal connection.

Again, cf. the Pseudo-Clementines for the argument - I know they're later, but they're said to be based on a text that may have been written around the same time as Acts, and I think it may have come from the same stable, or perhaps an even more Jewish-centric version of the same idea, as Acts, with the same ulterior motive, the same logic. In fact, it looks like the Pseudo-Clementine version is an abortive attempt, perhaps because it's too biased towards "Peter", too biased towards the Jewish connection. Acts is more rounded, more ... catholic.

Summat like that, anyway.
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Old 11-16-2009, 09:54 AM   #109
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Ad hoc explanations can be made, yes, like maybe "brother" is only a metaphorical brother,
No, it's not ad hoc, the idea that a physical brother is meant is what's ad hoc. The term is quite plainly used as a "term of art" denoting some sort of community/religious role or status elsewhere in "Paul". Especially consider:

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1Cor 9:5 Do we not have the right to be accompanied by a sister woman, as the other apostles and the brothers of the Lord and Cephas?
What I've put as "sister woman" seems to be usually translated as "believing wife", but the literal term is adelphon gunaika.

So is the text normalising incest (since "brothers of the Lord" appear to be taking "sisters" as companions!!!)? Or is it a "term of art"?

(Also, if it's siblinghood, just how many damn brothers and sisters did he have? )

As to Peter - well, look and see if anywhere in "Paul" either Peter or Cephas (who may or may not have been the same person) is mentioned in any sort of context that might indictate they knew Jesus Christ as a human being, that they were at any time disciples of a living human being (a preacher, a revolutionary, or whatever).

As I said, if there was anything in "Paul" like "Cephas told me that Jesus had said to him ...." that would be clear evidence of a human being behind the myth (at least it would be for me, it would convince me). Now the fact that there isn't anything of that kind could be for any number of reasons (on the HJ scenario): we can all think up some reasons. But the fact is, there isn't anything like that.

So why posit that ANY of these people ("Paul", the Jerusalem people) were talking about a human Jesus whom some of them had known personally (bracketing the question of whether they thought he was also divine in some sense)?

Just based on what's in "Paul", the entity being spoken of is clearly a visionary entity - certainly a visionary entity whom they all believed had been on earth at some point in the recent past, clothed in flesh in some sense, and been crucified; but there is not the slightest suggestion that any of them had personally known this entity whose existence they believed in. And it's this personal connection that's needed to make HJ more plausible.
That is well argued. If, at any time, Paul needed to use the Greek word for the literal genetic brother, then he would have to use the word, "adelphos." If there was any doubt about what the word means, then the doubt should be resolved by "James" being listed as one of the literal brothers of Jesus in two of the synoptic gospels. Further, the phrase, "brother of the Lord," is seemingly used as an identifying title, because there were many men named James, including inside the Christian community (one of the original disciples was named "James").

It is simply not enough that Paul uses the phrase, "brother," in a metaphorical sense plenty of other times, because that is only a secondary way to interpret a meaning of a word in a specific use of it. The primary way is to look at the specific context of the usage.

If you want to propose that, "brother of the Lord," was used as an honorary title for a Christian leader, then that proposal needs evidence. The traditional interpretation already has evidence. That is what makes the other explanation ad hoc--it is an interpretation that is very new and lacks evidence.

Same goes for the ad hoc explanation behind Paul having met Peter. If "Cephas" is not the same as "Peter," then the proposal is OK, but evidence is what makes the difference. If it is the same Peter but he was integrated into the gospel accounts only later (as some have proposed), then the proposal is fine and good, but it needs evidence before it is accepted. The HJ position has the evidence that makes unified sense, and HJ is what is left after Occam's Razor is applied. Occam's Razor is necessary, because there is ambiguity everywhere in Biblical scholarship, which means that any model can be logically consistent with enough exegetical gymnastics, but the theory that wins is the theory that is the most unified, most likely and has the least amount of unevidenced leaps.
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Old 11-16-2009, 10:19 AM   #110
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Yes, I believe that this is the case that the letters were edited. I think it was done around the time that cannonical Luke/Acts made their appearance. Around the time of Ireneaus.
Why do you believe the people who mutilated their own writings? Why don't you believe the writings of Irenaeus were also mutilated or manufactured?

If the writings of Paul were mutilated, then Irenaeus must be mutilated in order to appear to be corroborative or in sync with Paul as found canonised.

If Paul was mutilated and Irenaeus left un-mutilated then major discrepancies would immediately be found. The same applies to Tertullian, Origen, Eusebius or any writer who wrote about Paul, these writings must be mutilated to be in SYNC with the canonised Pauline Epistles.

You must now begin to understand what happened.

Virtually all the writings with the name Paul or passages of the Pauline Epistles from the Church writers were mutilated, and this include writings with the name Ignatius, Clement, Irenaeus, Tertullian, Origen, Eusebius and others.

The writer called Paul and his Epistles, as found canonised, are non-historical, but mere propaganda from the Church in order to promote a fraudulent history of Jesus believers.
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