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05-06-2008, 02:11 PM | #401 |
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If I mistook your religious beliefs, it was because I didn't know the whole situation. Christian or weird, unevidenced religious beliefs still you held and hold still.
Regardless, I've seen no evidence for any sort of propositions you've made. |
05-06-2008, 03:09 PM | #402 | ||||||||||||
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05-06-2008, 03:15 PM | #403 | |
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05-06-2008, 03:28 PM | #404 | |
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"We do know that Mithraism, like its mystery competitors, had a basic myth. Mithra was supposedly born when he emerged from a rock; he was carrying a knife and torch and wearing a Phrygian cap. He battled first the with the sun and then with a primeval bull, thought to be the first act of creation. Mithra slew the bull, which then became the ground of life for the human race. Mithraism flowered after Christianity, not before, so Christianity could not have copied from Mithraism. The timing is all wrong to have influenced the development of first-century Christianity. (ibid., pg. 147) (Baker Encyclopedia of Christian Apologetics) :huh: Who's information is right |
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05-06-2008, 03:56 PM | #405 | ||||
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05-06-2008, 04:13 PM | #406 | ||
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Ultimately the writer's logic is spurious. Mithraism flourished at the same time as christianity and they partially shared the same geography. Quote:
Oh and welcome to the forum. spin |
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05-06-2008, 04:41 PM | #407 | |
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05-06-2008, 05:02 PM | #408 | |||
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Now, it could hypothetically be that he also disparaged them at the time; the present tense does not rule out the possibility that he disparaged them both in the past and in the present; but nor does the present tense support your reading. You have to look elsewhere. When I look elsewhere I notice (A) that Paul distinguishes the false brethren from the pillars; (B) that the false brethren would require gentiles to follow the Jewish law whereas the pillars at first did not, given that Cephas used to eat with gentiles before the Antioch incident; (C) that the only thing the pillars required of Paul was that he remember the poor; (D) that the pillars extended to Paul the right hand of fellowship; and (E) that the pillars recognized the grace given to Paul with regard to preaching to the gentiles. All of this just screams agreement on the issues most important to Paul. When you look elsewhere what do you notice? That the pillars did not confer anything upon Paul? The meaning I see in that phrase (that they did not confer upon him any gentile burden) is eminently consistent with 2.10, where Paul says that they did not require anything of him except one thing which he was already eager to do. Questions: If the pillars disagreed with the Pauline gospel of gentile inclusion without legal encumbrance right from the start, why did Cephas at first eat with gentiles (2.12) and then withdraw only later, at Antioch? Why did Paul openly condemn them only when Cephas changed his eating behavior in Antioch? Why did the pillars make only one request of Paul, that he remember the poor? Why did they not also request (like the false brethren did) gentile purity? Why did Paul get the distinct impression that they had recognized his grace for preaching to the gentiles? Why did they all shake hands in fellowship? Quote:
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05-06-2008, 05:56 PM | #409 | ||||||||||||||||||
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05-06-2008, 05:57 PM | #410 | |||
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