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Old 08-04-2007, 09:31 AM   #21
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Originally Posted by Doug Shaver
I have never seen an argument by an apologist for the KJV's authority that does not assume the apologist's own infallibility.
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"the apologist's own infallibility" ?[/COLOR]
Yep.

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Anyway, even if you reject the general concept of King James Bible perfection, or specific arguments for that view
I reject the concept because I find every specific argument to be fallacious.

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it is clearly the genetic fallacy to therefore reject every apologetic and argument from those who have such a view.
Yes, but I haven't done that.

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Clearly anybody who does [accept the Bible as the word of God] not can brand and label this and that as "circular" or "illogical"
They can do all the branding and labeling they want. The question ought to be whether they can demonstrate the circularity or illogicality.

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Nobody who rejects the Bible in a general sense can ever be expected to receive arguments for the perfection of a manuscript, text or translation in a specific sense.
You mean, the arguments only convince people who already believe the conclusion?
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Old 08-04-2007, 10:55 AM   #22
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OKAY, not believing in the bullshit of the link in the OP, that the LXX was written by Origen in the 3rd Century, but knowing little or nothing of the LXX, existing manuscripts, etc., could someone refute the link as an educational service?
I didn't notice a direct response, Dave, so let me just say that Josephus knew of the tradition of the seventy-two which gave us LXX. The story is also found in the letter of Aristeas (not easy to date) and deals with the request of Ptolemy II for a copy of the Hebrew scriptures. What the Hebrew books meant were at the time may be hard to define, but we should at least include the pentateuch. And in fact a few Greek fragments were found at Qumran.

I get the idea from Josephus that not all the Hebrew texts were translated in his time, so the notion of the LXX was an evolving one (but then so was the torah).


spin
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Old 08-04-2007, 02:51 PM   #23
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RED DAVE View Post
OKAY, not believing in the bullshit of the link in the OP, that the LXX was written by Origen in the 3rd Century, but knowing little or nothing of the LXX, existing manuscripts, etc., could someone refute the link as an educational service?
I didn't notice a direct response, Dave, so let me just say that Josephus knew of the tradition of the seventy-two which gave us LXX. The story is also found in the letter of Aristeas (not easy to date) and deals with the request of Ptolemy II for a copy of the Hebrew scriptures. What the Hebrew books meant were at the time may be hard to define, but we should at least include the pentateuch. And in fact a few Greek fragments were found at Qumran.

I get the idea from Josephus that not all the Hebrew texts were translated in his time, so the notion of the LXX was an evolving one (but then so was the torah).


spin
While this perspective is well and good it does not deal
with claims relating to Eusebius and/or Eusebius/Origen.

The basis of controversy in this area is the claim that
the greek translations of the LXX given by Origen, and
then later used by Eusebius were in fact the same
translations used in Constantine's Bible 331 CE, and
thus -- according to many scholars --- from there
to our most ancient surviving codexes.

This transmission of the Hebrew texts via the greek
translation of Origen, via the transmission of Eusebius
may be viewed as a separate issue to the transmission
by Eusebius (if any) of the New Testament corpus in
the greek language.

The Origenist Controversy may also be relevant to the
more complete educational service in regard to the
role of Origen, his writings and their transmission.

Best wishes,

Pete Brown
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