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Old 05-30-2010, 10:42 AM   #81
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Unlawful killing is always murder. That's the definition of murder!
Not really: negligent homicide / manslaughter are also unlawful, though not intentional killing like murder.

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Old 05-30-2010, 10:52 AM   #82
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I did not make any mistake I pointed out what was in the KJV of Exodus


The KJV of Exodus 20.13 does state "Thou shalt not kill"

You ought to know that unlawful killing may be murder.
Unlawful killing is always murder. That's the definition of murder! My point -- stated yet again -- is that the correct translation cannot possibly be kill, as that would make any killing -- of people or animals -- a breaking of the commandment. The KJV is a poor translation of the Bible, and this is a perfect example of why.
You have a problem with the TRANSLATORS of the KJV. Please go and find them and lodge your complaint.

Unlawful Killing may be called murder. In Hebrew Scripture there are instructions on what is LAWFUL to be killed or Sacrificed with DEATH.

Just as you may have been able to deduce that Thou shalt NOT Kill means "thou shall not murder" it is most logical that "thou shalt NOT kill" referred to UNLAWFUL KILLING.
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Old 05-30-2010, 01:39 PM   #83
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Was Joan of Arks a lawful killing? How about Jezebel"s or anyone wrongfully accused of adultery? If you are referring to the infallible laws of man, where even today innocent people are still locked up for crimes they don't commit. Then the commandment is only useful to God himself, the only one who would know the truth as it happened.
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Old 05-30-2010, 08:05 PM   #84
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Unlawful killing is always murder. That's the definition of murder! My point -- stated yet again -- is that the correct translation cannot possibly be kill, as that would make any killing -- of people or animals -- a breaking of the commandment. The KJV is a poor translation of the Bible, and this is a perfect example of why.
You have a problem with the TRANSLATORS of the KJV. Please go and find them and lodge your complaint.
If they were still alive, I would. You, on the other hand, could contact Richard L. Friedman and lodge a complaint with him.

Many scholars have problems with the translators of the KJV, including the translators of other Bibles. I'll leave it up to others here to decide which are more accurate.

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Unlawful Killing may be called murder. In Hebrew Scripture there are instructions on what is LAWFUL to be killed or Sacrificed with DEATH.
I have agreed with you on this point since the start of this argument. Why are you flogging this dead horse?

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Just as you may have been able to deduce that Thou shalt NOT Kill means "thou shall not murder" it is most logical that "thou shalt NOT kill" referred to UNLAWFUL KILLING.
Then why not use the most accurate word possible (as the better Bibles, especially Jewish ones, do)? Why confuse matters with a word that has a broader meaning than the writer(s) intended?
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Old 05-30-2010, 09:25 PM   #85
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You have a problem with the TRANSLATORS of the KJV. Please go and find them and lodge your complaint.
If they were still alive, I would. You, on the other hand, could contact Richard L. Friedman and lodge a complaint with him.
I use the KJV.

You are the one who is complaining about JKV translations.

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Just as you may have been able to deduce that Thou shalt NOT Kill means "thou shall not murder" it is most logical that "thou shalt NOT kill" referred to UNLAWFUL KILLING.
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Originally Posted by Joan of Bark
Then why not use the most accurate word possible (as the better Bibles, especially Jewish ones, do)? Why confuse matters with a word that has a broader meaning than the writer(s) intended?
Please explain what are the most accurate words to describe fictitious events?

Consider that God does not Exist and in a fiction story an author claimed GOD said "Thou shalt not kill", how can it be actually determined that the non-existing God said "Thou shalt not murder".



As I have explained already there are other passages in the Bible that explains what is Lawful and unLawful Killing and what is to be KILLED as a sacrifice.

It was LAWFUL to execute Jesus for Blasphemy but not as a Sacrifice on the EIGHT day after he was born.

There is no LAW in Hebrew Scripture to KILL eight day old FIRSTBORN MALES as a Sacrifice to the God of the Jews.
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Old 05-31-2010, 04:39 AM   #86
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Please explain what are the most accurate words to describe fictitious events?

Consider that God does not Exist and in a fiction story an author claimed GOD said "Thou shalt not kill", how can it be actually determined that the non-existing God said "Thou shalt not murder".
We are trying to determine what the author of the Ten Commandments wrote, not what the fictitious God said. The best -- and only reasonable translation of the commandment -- uses murder, not kill. Murder is the translation used by those within Judaism, so my money -- and the money of many other Bibles -- is on them.


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As I have explained already there are other passages in the Bible that explains what is Lawful and unLawful Killing and what is to be KILLED as a sacrifice.

It was LAWFUL to execute Jesus for Blasphemy but not as a Sacrifice on the EIGHT day after he was born.

There is no LAW in Hebrew Scripture to KILL eight day old FIRSTBORN MALES as a Sacrifice to the God of the Jews.
I'm not arguing with you on this point.
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Old 05-31-2010, 05:33 AM   #87
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There is no LAW in Hebrew Scripture to KILL eight day old FIRSTBORN MALES as a Sacrifice to the God of the Jews.
Maybe not in the version which we can read today, but look again Ezekiel 20.23-27:

"Also I swore to them in the wilderness that I would scatter them among the nations and disperse them among the lands, because they had not observed My ordinances, but had rejected My statutes and had profaned My Sabbaths, and their eyes were on the idols of their fathers. I also gave them statutes that were not good and ordinances by which they could not live; and I pronounced them unclean because of their gifts, in that they caused all their firstborn to pass through the fire so that I might make them desolate, in order that they might know that I am the Lord."
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