FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 03-19-2008, 10:27 AM   #171
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2007
Location: The temple of Isis at Memphis
Posts: 1,484
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by blastula View Post

Then the changes added to the last chapter of the earliest copies of the earliest gospel Mark is very relevant, don't you think?
It is very irrelevant.
Not to the question at hand - which as usual, you don't understand (but when has that ever stopped you from giving your uninformed opinion? )

The question was whether or not any of the differences in the text might impact doctrinal issues. The omitted text in Mark has major doctrinal implications.
Sheshonq is offline  
Old 03-19-2008, 10:34 AM   #172
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2007
Location: The temple of Isis at Memphis
Posts: 1,484
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
You do realize that the rotting corpse of Jesus or his tomb has never been found, right?
Utterly stupid response.

We don't have the rotting corpse of Pericles, either. Nor do we have his tomb. What does that prove? Did Pericles rise from the dead as well?

Quote:
Besides if it's all a fairytale why do you waste your time even debating it? Do you waste your time debating if little red riding hood was real also?
No one would bother debating it, if Christians kept to themselves and weren't trying to ruin education or our legal system. Debating this is a response to Christians who try and forcibly inflict their beliefs on the unwilling public.
Sheshonq is offline  
Old 03-19-2008, 10:37 AM   #173
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2007
Location: The temple of Isis at Memphis
Posts: 1,484
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
Ok, so the options in reference to the NT are

A. It's true
B. It's deliberate lies
C. It's innocent folktales

I guess answer A is out of the question so the NT is either B or C, right?
D. accidental mistakes - either of copyist or author
Sheshonq is offline  
Old 03-19-2008, 12:04 PM   #174
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2003
Location: On the path of knowledge
Posts: 8,889
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sheshonq View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
Ok, so the options in reference to the NT are

A. It's true
B. It's deliberate lies
C. It's innocent folktales

I guess answer A is out of the question so the NT is either B or C, right?
D. accidental mistakes - either of copyist or author
Again the <edit> positing of false dichotomies, as though they represent a single choice that is all, and only what is available, or are the sum and total of all, and are the only possibilities.
As NinJay has stated above, and it needs to be empathised "There are many different possibilities along the continuum from "Absolute truth" to "total lie".
Its not a matter for simply choosing from any A, B, or C type of list, as the sum total contains all of the above to varying degrees, plus dozens of other unlisted "possibilities", as well as other as yet unknown, perhaps unknowable, and as yet unrecognised contributing factors.
Biased and dogmatic assertions from any quarter, do nothing to contribute substantially to knowledge.
Sheshbazzar is offline  
Old 03-19-2008, 12:11 PM   #175
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2005
Location: Ann Arbor, MI
Posts: 3,076
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by gregor View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by WWJD4aKlondikeBar View Post

"written" (scribed, actually) during the reign of Domitian (81-96 AD), but the majority of modern scholars agree that the lost original was more likely written in 68 or 69.
OT - Your statement about an earlier date being accepted by a "majority" is probably wrong, I believe (although admittedly not having conducted a survey). Burton Mack (WWTNT) points out the conventional thinking of authorship during Domitian, but argues (persuasively I think) for an original writing during Trajan's reign (98-117).
More OT - You disputed my "majority" claim without providing any reasoning beyond one author's uncited arguments. I'm honestly interested in learning about this angle, but I wonder if you're touting old opinions. The popular 68-69 estimate was reached in 2005 when we were finally able to read that papyrus I linked above.
WWJD4aKlondikeBar is offline  
Old 03-19-2008, 06:02 PM   #176
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2008
Location: Latin America
Posts: 4,066
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Sheshonq View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post

It is very irrelevant.
Not to the question at hand - which as usual, you don't understand (but when has that ever stopped you from giving your uninformed opinion? )

The question was whether or not any of the differences in the text might impact doctrinal issues. The omitted text in Mark has major doctrinal implications.
The non-omitted text in Mark has major doctrinal implications as well. Note Mark 13:2
Quote:
and Jesus answering said to him, 'Seest thou these great buildings? there may not be left a stone upon a stone, that may not be thrown down.'

Luke 19:44 and they will level you to the ground and your children within you, and they will not leave in you one stone upon another, because you did not recognize the time of your visitation." (NASB ©1995)


And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings? there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.


And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings? there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary

2. And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings?-"Ye call My attention to these things? I have seen them. Ye point to their massive and durable appearance: now listen to their fate."

there shall not be left-"left here" (Mt 24:2).

one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down-Titus ordered the whole city and temple to be demolished [Josephus, Wars of the Jews, 7.1.1]; Eleazar wished they had all died before seeing that holy city destroyed by enemies' hands, and before the temple was so profanely dug up [Wars of the Jews, 7.8.7].
Of course this is only prophecy written after the fact, right?
arnoldo is offline  
Old 03-19-2008, 06:04 PM   #177
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jul 2006
Location: A pale blue oblate spheroid.
Posts: 20,351
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
Of course this is only prophecy written after the fact, right?
How do you know the "fact" really did happen?
GenesisNemesis is offline  
Old 03-19-2008, 06:11 PM   #178
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
...
The non-omitted text in Mark has major doctrinal implications as well. Note Mark 13:2
Quote:
and Jesus answering said to him, 'Seest thou these great buildings? there may not be left a stone upon a stone, that may not be thrown down.'

Luke 19:44 and they will level you to the ground and your children within you, and they will not leave in you one stone upon another, because you did not recognize the time of your visitation." (NASB ©1995)

...
2. And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings?-"Ye call My attention to these things? I have seen them. Ye point to their massive and durable appearance: now listen to their fate."

there shall not be left-"left here" (Mt 24:2).

one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down-Titus ordered the whole city and temple to be demolished [Josephus, Wars of the Jews, 7.1.1]; Eleazar wished they had all died before seeing that holy city destroyed by enemies' hands, and before the temple was so profanely dug up [Wars of the Jews, 7.8.7].
Of course this is only prophecy written after the fact, right?
Please stop posting sarcistic comments as if you can refute an argument by rolling your eyes. Of course these were written after the fact. We have no evidence of these texts until well after that time, and no reason to believe that they were written before the Jewish War.
Toto is offline  
Old 03-19-2008, 06:27 PM   #179
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: May 2005
Location: Midwest
Posts: 4,787
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto View Post
Please stop posting sarcistic comments as if you can refute an argument by rolling your eyes.


Take that!

Ben.
Ben C Smith is offline  
Old 03-19-2008, 07:37 PM   #180
Banned
 
Join Date: Jun 2005
Location: Florida
Posts: 19,796
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo
Of course this is only prophecy written after the fact, right?
If a God exists, and is able to predict the future, it is obvious that he is not the God of the Bible since the Bible contains 100% disputable prophecies. I wish to distinguish disputable prophecies from false prophecies. A false prophecy is a prophecy that does not come true. A disputable prophecy does not necessarily have to be a false prophecy. Even if all Bible prophecies are true prophecies, they have needlessly failed to convince the vast majority of the people in the world that they are true prophecies. If Jesus had accurately predicted what the names of the Roman emperors would be for the next 200 years, and their dates of birth and death, those would have been indisputable prophecies if we were to define indisputable prophecies as prophecies that could not have been made by humans, and would therefore plausibly have been made by a God. Since the New Testament says that Jesus made some predictions, Christians cannot intelligently argue that if Jesus had predicted what I said, that that would have unfairly interfered with people’s free will. If Jesus had predicted what I said, surely more people would have become Christians. That is a reasonable assumption since historically, many people have accepted all kinds of outlandish religions based upon much less convincing evidence than that. In addition, Nostradamus and Edgar Cayce attracted a lot of followers based upon a lot less convincing evidence than that.

In my opinion, no prophecies at all would be much better than 100% disputable prophecies. That is because the Bible says that God is not the author of confusion (1 Corinthians 14:33), and yet Bible prophecies have needlessly caused lots of confusion.

If a God is able to predict the future, and wanted to use prophecy to influence people, anyone who has just a modest amount of common sense knows that he would always make indisputable prophecies in order to avoid convincing billions of people to believe that he does not exist. Making 100% disputable prophecies could not possibly benefit God or anyone else, with the exception of a God who wanted to cause doubt and confusion.
Johnny Skeptic is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 05:42 AM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.