Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Doug Shaver · 12-31-2011, 06:24 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Steven Carr

[1] I think the consensus among mainstream Biblical scholars is that a lot of Jews in the cosmopolitan city of Jerusalem spoke Greek, and that James the brother of Jesus would have had good reasons to learn Greek and would have been familiar with Septuagintal Greek.

. . . .

[2] So the disciples would have known Greek

How does [1] entail [2]?

Gorit Maqueda · 12-31-2011, 06:42 AM

In general, knowledge of other languages is driven by necessity. I understand English because I need it for my work and my hobbies (such as reading FRDB posts). I'd say that a great majority of native English speakers don't feel that necessity. Did Jesus (or 'Jesus') have that necessity with regard to Greek? Possibly not, but who knows. How did Jesus communicate with Roman soldiers? Did Pilate have an interpreter?

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12-31-2011, 06:42 AM	#12
Gorit Maqueda Junior Member Join Date: Dec 2006 Location: Valdebernardo Posts: 73	In general, knowledge of other languages is driven by necessity. I understand English because I need it for my work and my hobbies (such as reading FRDB posts). I'd say that a great majority of native English speakers don't feel that necessity. Did Jesus (or 'Jesus') have that necessity with regard to Greek? Possibly not, but who knows. How did Jesus communicate with Roman soldiers? Did Pilate have an interpreter?

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