Freethought & Rationalism Archive

thief of fire · 02-06-2013, 02:26 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Duvduv

Yes, TOF, but in the context of the person(s) responsible for writing these texts, what was the intent in using Hebraisms in the first place, unless it was to give the canonical texts the appearance of resembling the Old Testament and thereby establish the texts as canonical texts?

I think you should try to find a way to test that theory. Though I'm not quite sure exactly what your theory is.

Quote:

But aside from intent,

You haven't established any intent.

Quote:

what does it tell us about the background and skills of the actual authors in terms of their facility with writing Greek using Hebraisms?

Either they were translating or they were comfortable "thinking" in Aramaic/Hebrew, I'd say.
The semitic style of the NT is reasonably well known, though I'm not sure there is any consensus on explaining it

Duvduv · 02-10-2013, 02:32 AM

If the authors were seeking to create a canon to supplement the Tanakh then it was very clever to make use of stylistic similarities. But then the authors would have had to have been immensely skillful. So one wonders who such clever writers were.
I would be interested in a comparative study of the texts for use of hebraisms. And were they employed to give the impression that the authors were all Jews, thereby lending increased authenticity to the subject matter and claims??

Duvduv · 02-11-2013, 01:09 PM

I think it is of particular significance according to the theory that the NT texts originated from different writers and different locations, that it would turn out that all of them were skilled at imitating the Tanakh style with Hebraisms, and yet this is unexplained.

It remains to be examined that the authors had in mind that the texts were to resemble the Hebrew Bible and the NT texts must have themselves been considered equivalent as holy writ as part of a canon, and NOT merely as substitutes for other texts as INDIVIDUAL stories on their own.

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02-10-2013, 02:32 AM	#12
Duvduv Veteran Member Join Date: Nov 2011 Location: USA Posts: 4,095	If the authors were seeking to create a canon to supplement the Tanakh then it was very clever to make use of stylistic similarities. But then the authors would have had to have been immensely skillful. So one wonders who such clever writers were. I would be interested in a comparative study of the texts for use of hebraisms. And were they employed to give the impression that the authors were all Jews, thereby lending increased authenticity to the subject matter and claims??

02-11-2013, 01:09 PM	#13
Duvduv Veteran Member Join Date: Nov 2011 Location: USA Posts: 4,095	I think it is of particular significance according to the theory that the NT texts originated from different writers and different locations, that it would turn out that all of them were skilled at imitating the Tanakh style with Hebraisms, and yet this is unexplained. It remains to be examined that the authors had in mind that the texts were to resemble the Hebrew Bible and the NT texts must have themselves been considered equivalent as holy writ as part of a canon, and NOT merely as substitutes for other texts as INDIVIDUAL stories on their own.

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