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08-14-2008, 06:29 AM | #111 | ||
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08-14-2008, 07:38 AM | #112 | ||
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It is not correct. You should check the O. T. : the book of Joshua (Yehoshuah in Hebrew). Jerome transliterated with IOSUE not with IESUS! Iosue, in this work, one meet it for more than 110 times. Iosue is phonetically very similar to English "Joshua" and to the hebraic "Yehoshuah" (Y'oshua). Iesus instead differs greatly from that sound phonetic Regarding the LXX, see my post "In memory of a 'lemma' disappeared ' http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showthr...=247096&page=2 (Littlejohn - 5468063) Littlejohn . |
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08-14-2008, 08:02 AM | #113 | |
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Littlejohn . |
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08-14-2008, 08:03 AM | #114 |
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Zechariah 3.3 (Masoretic):
ויהושע היה לבש בגדים צואים ועמד לפתי המלאך׃Zechariah 3.3 (Latin Vulgate): Et Iesus erat indutus vestibus sordidis et stabat ante faciem angeli.Zechariah 3.3 (King James Version): Now Joshua was clothed with filthy garments, and stood before the angel.Zechariah 3.3 (La Nuova Diodati): Or Giosuè era vestito di vesti sudicie, e stava davanti all' angelo.Ben. |
08-14-2008, 08:26 AM | #115 | |
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Try checking, then you will say me.. (Please, note that I did not have said that you've shown is not true, but only that was not accurate, since missing the reference to the book of Joshua) Littlejohn . |
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08-14-2008, 08:52 AM | #116 | ||||
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08-14-2008, 09:35 AM | #117 | |||||
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Nor is there an Attic name Ἰασοῦς. (Please show me where the word is employed as as a masculine nominative singular, let alone is used in this form as a name, in Attic literature. To my knowledge, the word Ἰασοῦς appears once in the extant corpus of Greek literature from Homer through the 3rd century CE, in Pausanius, and there it is the genitive singular of the name of the goddessἸᾱσώ. There is an Attic name Ἰᾱσώ used only of a female, the reputed daughter odf Ascelpius and sister of Hygenia. See, for instance, Aristophanes Plutus701 οὔκ, ἀλλ’ Ἰασὼ μ�*ν τις ἀκολουθοῦσ’ ἅμα ὑπηρυθρίασε χ�* �*ανάκει’ ἀπεστράφη τὴν ῥῖν’ ἐπιλαβοῦσ’· οὐ λιβανωτὸν γὰρ βδ�*ω. See too: Thucydides Hist 8.28.2. Paean Erythraeus in Aesculapium 11 Duris Fragmenta 17.1 Athenaeus Soph. Deipn 13.85.13 Lucianus Soph. Abdic 26.5 Achilles Tatius Leucippe et Clitophon 2.7.5. Claudius Aelianus De natura animalium 6.15; 8.11. Flavius Philostratus VA 7.21.24 But so far as I can tell, there is no use in non Jewish/Biblical literature and/or in literature that is not dependent on the LXX and/or the NT of the nominative Ἰησοῦς as a name for a man. If you have examples of the masculine nominative singular noun Ἰησοῦς being used as a name for someone in "secular" (let alone in pre first century CE "secular" literature), I'd be grateful to see it. Quote:
No, it is not, at least according to LSJ. Ἰᾱσώ, from the verb ἰάομαι, was the name of the Goddess who was the personification of recovery from illness. Quote:
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ἔτι δὲ ̓Ιασου̂ς καὶ ̔Υγείας καὶ ̓Αθηνα̂ς �*αιωνίας John, do you read Greek? Jeffrey |
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08-14-2008, 09:47 AM | #118 | ||
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just, EXACT, educated, but not TRUE.... A task that shown an error is not exact.. Littlejohn . |
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08-14-2008, 10:48 AM | #119 | ||
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You were (and still are) mistaken. I claimed that in Zechariah 3.3 Jerome uses Iesus for the Hebrew Yehoshuah, and that claim is true, exact, accurate, correct, and not at all in error. Ben. ETA: From the American Heritage Dictionary: cor·rect |
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08-14-2008, 11:29 AM | #120 | |||
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Whoever wrote the above has little to no knowledge of Greek as is evident not only by his/her use of Strongs as an authoritative source, but by his or her wholesale lack of awareness that there are any number of feminine Greek nouns (Iaso!) that have first declension ("masculine" and, BTW, neuter) endings, just as there are second declension masculine nouns. Jeffrey |
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