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Old 02-22-2012, 12:37 AM   #291
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....But in terms of being a Christian, the Paul of the letters was something of a loner. He preached HIS gospel and dissed those who preached another Jesus. He said disparaging things about the pillars....
But, let us NOT get side-tracked with your PRESUMPTIONS about Paul.

Please find a corroborative non-apologetic source for the Pauline writer. I make NO presumptions about Paul since the NT is historically unreliable.
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Old 02-22-2012, 01:07 AM   #292
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I am not assuming that Paul existed. I only describe the literary character Paul of the epistles.
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Old 02-22-2012, 06:16 AM   #293
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I am not assuming that Paul existed. I only describe the literary character Paul of the epistles.
Of course you are assuming that Paul is a 1st century character who wrote letters before the Fall of the Temple c 70 CE since you have NO credible apologetic sources and none outside the Bible and Church writings.

You very well know that the Church and its writers gave false and contradictory information about Paul when it was claimed Paul died under Nero but was AWARE of gLuke.

It is virtually IMPOSSIBLE that Paul could have died under Nero and still be aware of gLuke.

gLuke is considered to have been written after 94 CE or after the writings of Josephus.

The writings of Philo, Josephus, Tacitus, Suetonius, Pliny the younger, Justin Martyr, Aristides, the Short-Ending gMark, the Long-Ending gMark, gMatthew, gJohn, Revelation, Celsus and Municius Felix support a NON-historical 1st century Paul.
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Old 02-22-2012, 07:11 AM   #294
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Please, examine your own question, "
If the epistles were written after Acts, why didn't the fabricators go to greater pains to match the letters to the itinerary in Acts?


Now, I ask you If the epistles were written BEFORE Acts, why didn't the fabricators go to greater pains to match the letters to the itinerary in Acts?

Why does NOT gLuke's birth narrative and gMatthew's match when one must have written after the other?

Why does not the last chapter of the Short-Ending gMark MATCH the Long-Ending gMark when one MUST have been written after the other?

Why does NOT gJohn MATCH the Synoptics when one must have been written after the others?

The answers are EXTREMELY easy to resolve.

The Jesus story was changed and more so-called details were added.

The stories with more details and most changes are considered LATER.

The Pauline writings are SPECIFICALLY aimed at the Post-Resurrected Jesus.

The Pauline writings begin where the Gospels end.
Well put. It seems simple to me - but evidently a lot of people have trouble understanding that idea.

It looks to me like New Testament belongs to a literary tradition where the practice of re-writing (adding new details and taking away old details) was accepted, encouraged, and thrived.

The Pauline letters seem to be no exception. They appear to be a continuation of that tradition. They look like midrash on the Gospels.
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Old 02-22-2012, 07:17 AM   #295
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How could they be midrash on the gospels if they don't contain anything of the storyline or aphorisms of the gospels?
For that matter, WHAT does the word GOSPEL actually refer to? Is it a STORY or is it a RELIGIOUS DOCTRINE?
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Old 02-22-2012, 07:30 AM   #296
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How could they be midrash on the gospels if they don't contain anything of the storyline or aphorisms of the gospels?
They can be midrash on the gospels because I am using the words ‘gospels’ and ‘midrash’ liberally. Get over it.

Here’s an example:
1 Corinthians 4:8
Already you have all you want! Already you have become rich! You have begun to reign—and that without us! How I wish that you really had begun to reign so that we also might reign with you!
Compare …
Gospel of Thomas 81
Jesus said, "Let one who has become wealthy reign, and let one who has power renounce."
See?

The members of "God’s church at Corinth" were acting out a passage from the Gospel of Thomas.

How peculiar. The actions of the characters are driven by scripture.
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Old 02-22-2012, 07:43 AM   #297
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What do you mean "get over it"? Is that a reasonable response to an observation by someone to your assertion?

I commented before that all the similarity between GThomas and Corinthians means is that some popular sayings were floating around at the time. It does not prove that Corinthians was midrashing or using anything from GThomas. And besides, the Corinthians version only corresponds to the first half of the GThomas one.
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Old 02-22-2012, 08:03 AM   #298
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What do you mean "get over it"?
http://www.phrases.org.uk/meanings/get-over-it.html

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Originally Posted by Duvduv View Post
I commented before that all the similarity between GThomas and Corinthians means is that some popular sayings were floating around at the time. It does not prove that Corinthians was midrashing or using anything from GThomas.
It may not prove anything to you – but you are not the one who I am trying to convince. The issue of if is proof (or not proof) is determined by the person(s) I am trying to convince.

So get over it.

Now answer me this: Will you at least admit that it is circumstantial evidence?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circumstantial_evidence

Because it certainly is. And if you deny it (and I bet you will) then we will all enjoy a good laugh (and I enjoy making people laugh).
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Old 02-22-2012, 10:15 AM   #299
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to Duvduv,
About oral tradition:
I came to conclude that "Luke" had a copy of gMark with a big chunk missing:
Mk6:47 to Mk8:27a. From that, one would think, if there were oral traditions floating by, some similar to any of the pericopes in Mk6:47-8:27a, "Luke" would have captured them and put them at different places in her gospel. There is none of that. Zero. So much for oral tradition paralleling the differents parts of gMark.
If, as I think, gLuke & gMatthew were written at about the same time (85-90) and not knowing each other, then we would expect more Q and less L & M material, if there were common oral traditions available to them.
My view is, what I consider authentic about early Christianity characters (including Jesus and Paul) was heard from eyewitness(es) by the gospelers and his/her community, then remembered somewhat at the time of the writing of the gospel (or Acts), some 20 to 30 years later (by that time, those eyewitness(es) were dead or not heard of, which allowed the gospelers to embellish, invent fiction, resequence, modify on what they recalled, just to push their agenda).
That goes for parts of gMark, Q and Acts, but not for gLuke, gMatthew or gJohn.
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Old 02-22-2012, 10:26 AM   #300
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Do you preclude the possibility of oral stories floating around with different versions emerging in different locales and at different times?

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to Duvduv,
About oral tradition:
I came to conclude that "Luke" had a copy of gMark with a big chunk missing:
Mk6:47 to Mk8:27a. From that, one would think, if there were oral traditions floating by, some similar to any of the pericopes in Mk6:47-8:27a, "Luke" would have captured them and put them at different places in her gospel. There is none of that. Zero. So much for oral tradition paralleling the differents parts of gMark.
If, as I think, gLuke & gMatthew were written at about the same time (85-90) and not knowing each other, then we would expect more Q and less L & M material, if there were common oral traditions available to them.
My view is, what I consider authentic about early Christianity characters (including Jesus and Paul) was heard from eyewitness(es) by the gospelers and his/her community, then remembered somewhat at the time of the writing of the gospel (or Acts), some 20 to 30 years later (by that time, those eyewitness(es) were dead or not heard of, which allowed the gospelers to embellish, invent fiction, resequence, modify on what they recalled, just to push their agenda).
That goes for parts of gMark, Q and Acts, but not for gLuke, gMatthew or gJohn.
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