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Old 09-24-2006, 12:28 AM   #21
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The most interesting translation issue in the OT is, in my view, that of the Hebrew word Ratsach. Does it mean kill (almost certainly not), murder, kill pre-meditatively, stalk (I believe there is a reference in ancient Hebrew literature to an animal doing this), or something more complicated. The inability of Christians to come to a firm conclusion wrt the sixth commandment points out the problem of using the Bible as a moral guide.

P.S. Thanks, Pervy, for that excellent analysis of the garden story. I'll use those arguments the next time I confront a biblical "literalist".
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Old 09-24-2006, 12:38 AM   #22
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Originally Posted by Joan of Bark View Post
The most interesting translation issue in the OT is, in my view, that of the Hebrew word Ratsach. Does it mean kill (almost certainly not), murder, kill pre-meditatively, stalk (I believe there is a reference in ancient Hebrew literature to an animal doing this), or something more complicated. The inability of Christians to come to a firm conclusion wrt the sixth commandment points out the problem of using the Bible as a moral guide.
This thread gives a very good explanation of the meaning of Ratsach, in just that context.

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P.S. Thanks, Pervy, for that excellent analysis of the garden story. I'll use those arguments the next time I confront a biblical "literalist".
No Problem.
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Old 09-24-2006, 06:16 PM   #23
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No. "subtil" is just the 17th century English spelling of "subtle". It is exactly the same word.
I checked my 'strong's' and you are right.


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Originally Posted by Pervy
Since the text was written in Hebrew, with no English translation in mind, any resemblence between "till" and "subtil" is clearly just co-incidence.
If it were not for the evidence that there may be an ongoing scriptual theme concerning tending the garden 'in the dust' or from underneath, I would say you are right here to.

Taken, in of itself, a single co-incidence like some oral resemblence between 'till' and 'sub-till' would seem to be of little consequence.

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The woman is not named as "Eve" until then, but the author gives us no reason to believe that this is a different woman to the one who ate the fruit earlier in the story.
As a merican I grew up on "Adam and Eve and the Apple", and when I saw there was no apple and no mention of Eve till after the event, I started to take a 'clean slate' re-examination of the allegory.


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Originally Posted by Pervy
No it doesn't. It is a formulaic reference (called a "Toledoth" because the word translated as "generations" is the Hebrew "Toledot") taken from the "Book Of Records" (an old Hebrew source that was carved up and spliced into the Torah at various points. When the phrase talks about the "generations" of someone, it is referring to the list of descendants of that person (which are listed going down from generation to generation). So the "generations of Adam" are the list of his (Adam's) descendants. It does not refer to a "generation" called "Adam".
Isn't it true that in one 'generation' Adam's 1st born is Seth and in another 'generation' the 1st born is supposedly Cain?


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Originally Posted by Pervy
Well, I'd dispute that it even makes sense in English...
Well, it does seem to make more sense in my home tongue, and as a, 200 year, merican of scottish descent, not making sense in English might be seen as a positive attribute.

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The thing to ask yourself with these interpretations of yours is: Why (and how) would people write something that can only be properly understood when translated into a foreign language that hasn't been invented yet - and even then, only in a very specific translation?
If and when there will ever be a 'latter days' or an 'end days', then the 'home tongue' of the 'superpower alliance' that stands astride terra (and the lower levels of the heavens?) could very well prove to be of more than little consequence.
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Originally Posted by Pervy
Even if you grant that God inspired the author, you have to ask yourself why God would make the text be only properly understood when translated into 17th century English; a language that the vast majority of his own devout followers do not understand.
Could the question be rephrased as: "Why would God make the text understandable to the dominate language of the 'critical days'?"



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Originally Posted by Pervy
No. The story makes it quite clear that the fruit gives knowledge of good and evil. The Christian theologians are right (for once) in this case. Your alternate interpretation is not evenly remotely supported by the text.
The fruit gives knowledge? Wouldn't it be "The Tree of Knowledge" and not the "Fruit of Knowledge"?
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Old 09-25-2006, 02:33 AM   #24
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If it were not for the evidence that there may be an ongoing scriptual theme concerning tending the garden 'in the dust' or from underneath, I would say you are right here to.

Taken, in of itself, a single co-incidence like some oral resemblence between 'till' and 'sub-till' would seem to be of little consequence.
But there is no theme of tending the garden from underneath. That is something that is introduced by your interpretation. You seem to be saying that you interpret the story to mean X, and therefore your interpretation must be right because the story "means X".

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Isn't it true that in one 'generation' Adam's 1st born is Seth and in another 'generation' the 1st born is supposedly Cain?
The "Book of Records" that was spliced into the Torah gives a geneaology from Adam to Lamech (Noah's grandfather) via Seth. A different document that was also spliced into the Torah gives a geneaology from Adam to Lamech via Cain.

It appears that the person who did the splicing added a comment about Adam and Eve having another child after Cain (Genesis 4:25-26) in order to harmonise the two geneaologies and make it appear that they are giving different lineages, rather than contradicting versions of the same lineage.

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If and when there will ever be a 'latter days' or an 'end days', then the 'home tongue' of the 'superpower alliance' that stands astride terra (and the lower levels of the heavens?) could very well prove to be of more than little consequence.

Could the question be rephrased as: "Why would God make the text understandable to the dominate language of the 'critical days'?"
It would be better as "Why would God make the text only understandable to the dominant language of the 'critical days' rather than simply saying what he means, particularly when this part of the text has no relevance to end-times theology?"

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The fruit gives knowledge? Wouldn't it be "The Tree of Knowledge" and not the "Fruit of Knowledge"?
Yes. We get apples from an apple tree. We get Juniper Berries from a Juniper Bush. We get Fruit of Knowledge from a Tree of Knowledge.

But this is still very different from your earlier interpretation of: Tree=Good, Fruit=Evil.
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