Loomis

Who wrote Isaiah 40-55?

Can anyone find any evidence to show he was a polytheist?

He seems to be very aware of the name Yahweh.

Is the name Yahweh (or any equivalent translation) in the Septuagint?

John Kesler

From Harper Collins Bible Dictionary, revised edition, page 735, heading: Names of God in the NT:

Loomis

Yea. Thanks. I know. But that’s bullshit. “Yahweh” is a proper name. “Lord” is a title. If you take the time to research this issue you will make an amazing discovery:

There is no direct evidence in the New Testament to show that the authors were familiar with the divine name Yahweh (or any direct translation).

There is, however, evidence to show that the authors of the NT were ignorant, and only understood kyrios to mean “lord” - nothing more. (They weren't aware of the underlying name.) “Taking the lord’s name in vain” was not a problem for them because they never knew what it was in the first place.

So my bigger question was:

Are there any early (BC) Persian / Greek translations of the OT that use the divine name?

Because if not then that favors the view that Deutero-Isaiah arrived at his monotheism independently of any Persian / Greek influence.