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03-25-2011, 09:39 AM | #21 | |
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From Genesis to Judges there were altars and shrines all over the place, like Mt Gerizim in Samaria. Moving the ark from place to place is not unlike the processions of idols in other countries. Josiah's scribes would have us believe that this was stopped by David, who allegedly centralized Yahweh worship in the capital, but this could just be royal propaganda. |
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04-04-2011, 11:33 AM | #22 |
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04-04-2011, 11:52 AM | #23 | |
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Let's replace the word "sex", with the proper term: copulation. The idea is simple: one can achieve sexual gratification without copulation, but, in general, (i.e. apart from in vitro fertilization), one cannot achieve zygote formation absent ejaculation, and subsequent implantation of the fertilized embryo in the uterus. Since JC was born "according to the law", we know that Mary possessed a placenta, and ergo, someone, or something, fertilized an ovum in Mary. Mary bore a child, derived from a fetus, developed after penetration of the ovum by the sperm, with the consequent joining of two haploid cells, into a single diploid zygote. That is what "according to the law" means. Then, the question arises: WHO or WHAT, furnished the sperm? When Doug or anyone else writes "sex with ...", they mean, "furnish the sperm".... avi |
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04-04-2011, 01:15 PM | #24 | |
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04-04-2011, 05:36 PM | #25 | ||
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04-05-2011, 06:42 AM | #26 |
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It was Paul who said he was born "according to the law." Now, could I trouble you to provide some evidence that the particular law to which he was referring implied what you say it implied?
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04-05-2011, 08:14 AM | #27 |
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It was Paul who said he was born "according to the law." Now, could I trouble you to provide some evidence that the particular law to which he was referring implied what you say it implied?
1. Jewish law 2. Do you intend, Doug, to imply that the four gospels imply gestation out of wedlock, i.e. contrary to Jewish law? avi |
04-06-2011, 06:44 AM | #28 |
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04-06-2011, 02:18 PM | #29 | |
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But, then, how does one reconcile, "according to the law", with "miraculous conception". How does the latter correspond to "seed of David"? In my view, it is much easier to understand the myth of JC, as a simple distortion of reality, i.e. a delusion. There were no miraculous conceptions. If the conception had been "miraculous", why, then, bother invoking "seed of David", or "according to the law"? avi |
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04-06-2011, 04:22 PM | #30 | ||
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