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Old 03-25-2011, 09:39 AM   #21
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It's quite naive to think that King Josiah exterminated the religious system taken from another nation. He actually carried out religious reform never before seen in Israel.
Deuteronomy was the "second Law", a revision of the pre-existing Torah. We can speculate about Moses or whoever created the first four books of the Tanak, but there seems little doubt that polytheism in some form existed in early Israelite history.

From Genesis to Judges there were altars and shrines all over the place, like Mt Gerizim in Samaria. Moving the ark from place to place is not unlike the processions of idols in other countries. Josiah's scribes would have us believe that this was stopped by David, who allegedly centralized Yahweh worship in the capital, but this could just be royal propaganda.
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Old 04-04-2011, 11:33 AM   #22
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The BBC series is now on youtube:

Bible's Secrets (BBC) Ep.2: Did God have a wife? (1/4)

Part 2
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Old 04-04-2011, 11:52 AM   #23
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If I remember correctly, it's not adultery if you don't have sex with the "other woman."
In my opinion, this is something of a "chicken and egg" question, isn't it?

Let's replace the word "sex", with the proper term: copulation.

The idea is simple: one can achieve sexual gratification without copulation, but, in general, (i.e. apart from in vitro fertilization), one cannot achieve zygote formation absent ejaculation, and subsequent implantation of the fertilized embryo in the uterus.

Since JC was born "according to the law", we know that Mary possessed a placenta, and ergo, someone, or something, fertilized an ovum in Mary.

Mary bore a child, derived from a fetus, developed after penetration of the ovum by the sperm, with the consequent joining of two haploid cells, into a single diploid zygote.

That is what "according to the law" means.

Then, the question arises: WHO or WHAT, furnished the sperm?
When Doug or anyone else writes "sex with ...", they mean, "furnish the sperm"....


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Old 04-04-2011, 01:15 PM   #24
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As anticipated, for those of us who have read John Day (see my post above), Mark S. Smith, et al, there is not much, if anything, new presented. Still, this is a very good documentary introduction for the layman, and much more substantive than most U.S. "specials" about the Bible. The fact that Francesca is also easy on the eyes is an added bonus.
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Old 04-04-2011, 05:36 PM   #25
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It's quite naive to think that King Josiah exterminated the religious system taken from another nation. He actually carried out religious reform never before seen in Israel.
Deuteronomy was the "second Law", a revision of the pre-existing Torah. We can speculate about Moses or whoever created the first four books of the Tanak, but there seems little doubt that polytheism in some form existed in early Israelite history.
This "second law" stuff of a century ago is strange then when Deuteronomy is now seen as holding older traditions than the other "Mosaic" books.

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From Genesis to Judges there were altars and shrines all over the place, like Mt Gerizim in Samaria. Moving the ark from place to place is not unlike the processions of idols in other countries. Josiah's scribes would have us believe that this was stopped by David, who allegedly centralized Yahweh worship in the capital, but this could just be royal propaganda.
Was it the scribes of Josiah or those of John Hyrcanus, the Hasmonean, the king who actually centralized Yahweh worship in Jerusalem?
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Old 04-05-2011, 06:42 AM   #26
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Since JC was born "according to the law", we know that Mary possessed a placenta, and ergo, someone, or something, fertilized an ovum in Mary.
It was Paul who said he was born "according to the law." Now, could I trouble you to provide some evidence that the particular law to which he was referring implied what you say it implied?
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Old 04-05-2011, 08:14 AM   #27
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It was Paul who said he was born "according to the law." Now, could I trouble you to provide some evidence that the particular law to which he was referring implied what you say it implied?

1. Jewish law
2. Do you intend, Doug, to imply that the four gospels imply gestation out of wedlock, i.e. contrary to Jewish law?

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Old 04-06-2011, 06:44 AM   #28
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2. Do you intend, Doug, to imply that the four gospels imply gestation out of wedlock, i.e. contrary to Jewish law?
No, of course not. I think the gospels imply that Jesus' conception was miraculous. The last time I checked, Jewish law did not prohibit miracles.
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Old 04-06-2011, 02:18 PM   #29
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The last time I checked, Jewish law did not prohibit miracles.
No, Doug, you are certainly correct, here.

But, then, how does one reconcile, "according to the law", with "miraculous conception". How does the latter correspond to "seed of David"?

In my view, it is much easier to understand the myth of JC, as a simple distortion of reality, i.e. a delusion. There were no miraculous conceptions.

If the conception had been "miraculous", why, then, bother invoking "seed of David", or "according to the law"?

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Old 04-06-2011, 04:22 PM   #30
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2. Do you intend, Doug, to imply that the four gospels imply gestation out of wedlock, i.e. contrary to Jewish law?
No, of course not. I think the gospels imply that Jesus' conception was miraculous. The last time I checked, Jewish law did not prohibit miracles.
Jesus and his family were well known to the Arabs. Miracles are not forbidden in the Quran.


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"And mention in the Book, Maryam [i.e. mention, O Mohammed, in the Quran the story of Mary], when she withdrew from her family to a place facing east. She placed a screen from them; then We sent to her our angel (Jibrael, or Gabriel), and he appeared before her in the form of a man in full human form. She said:
'I seek refuge with The Most Beneficent [God] from you, if you do fear Him.' (The angel) said:
'I am only a Messenger from your Lord, (to announce) to you the gift of a righteous son.' She said:
'How can I have a son, when no man has touched me, nor am I unchaste?' He (the angel) said:
'So (it will be), your Lord said: 'That is easy for Me: And to appoint him as a sign to mankind and a mercy from Us (from God)', and it is a matter (already) decreed (by God).' " (Quran 19:16-21)
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