Freethought & Rationalism Archive

the_cave · 03-28-2009, 07:22 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by andrewcriddle

Quote:

Originally Posted by the_cave

Indeed there is not--in any extant Greek text, that is. I have presented evidence suggesting (strongly, IMO) that there must nevertheless have been a Greek basis for the Slavonic TF. That Greek basis is now lost to us.

IIUC Roger's point is that the Old Slavonic author used his Greek sources with considerable freedom and that it is hence risky to attribute unique features of the Old Slavonic to an earlier Greek text.

Andrew Criddle

Yes, but the whole purpose of the OP was to provide a reason for doing just that--I argue that a Slavonic author composing the TF would not have included Luke 23:1-15. He would only have included it if he had already found the narrative of the Slavonic TF in his Greek source as we now find it in the Slavonic.

Furthermore, there is still the problem that the Slavonic TF contains a gospel chronology which is unique. It would be highly unlikely (I would argue impossible) for the Slavonic translator to have access to the gospels (of Luke in particular), to be quoting directly from at least one of those gospels (Luke), and yet to get the chronology of the gospel narrative so wrong from what we find in the canonicals (and in Luke in particular). No one to my knowledge has even begun to offer a solution to this difficulty.

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