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02-27-2013, 10:05 AM | #41 | |
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Remember Psalm 22 has nothing to do with the slaughter of the innocents. Herod the Great is clearly identified as originally presiding over the Passion of Jesus:
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02-27-2013, 10:09 AM | #42 | |
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The second prophesy Justin connects with Herod the Great - Hosea 10 - is clearly connected with the destruction of the Jerusalem temple:
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02-27-2013, 10:17 AM | #43 | ||
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Other strange details in Justin. In the First Apology 30 he claims that the LXX was completed when Ptolemy made a request to Herod for the prophetic books:
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02-27-2013, 11:43 AM | #44 | ||
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Philo refers to Pilate as governor under Tiberias in the Embassy to Gaius
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Edited to Add If one accepts the fragments attributed to Clement of Alexandria in the Paschal Chronicle, (and probably one should), then Clement did mention Pilate. Quote:
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02-27-2013, 12:05 PM | #45 | |
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We already know the star in the birth narrative is Augustus coin, and the event in the sky when he proclaimed his dad Caesar resurrected. Haleys would be barely visible to the naked eye, not exactly what is described, in what most claim a fictional account anyway. |
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02-27-2013, 12:42 PM | #46 | ||
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Yes Andrew. Spot on as usual. I was aware of the reference in Philo which is why I shifted from the original question shortly after I posed it. The reference in the Paschale Chronicle raises some important questions. But I don't know if it is decisive.
The new question is - which is more believable, the idea that the gospel was originally set in the fifteenth of Augustus or fifteenth of Tiberius? I am not sure that Clement's position is completely clear here. Yes he mentions the fact that Luke says this but his citation of Luke is odd. It's not our Luke but Ephrem's Luke or perhaps most likely of all a corrected or amended reading. Nothing matches Luke as we know it exactly. Clement says that the gospel begins with "the fifteenth of Tiberius" and the word of God coming to John and then an odd version of Jesus going in the synagogue to pronounce the year of favor. It is almost exactly like Irenaeus's summary of the Marcionite gospel in AH 1.27.2. But the problem is that only the fifteenth of Augustus fits the idea of a prelude to the Jubilee year. In no known system can the fifteenth of Tiberius fit what follows in the gospel as Clement tells it. We also can't forget Irenaeus's attack against Clement's interpretation of the gospel in AH 2.22.2. Clement says that the gospel narrative represents one year - the year of favor - which is the Jubilee. Irenaeus - absurdly - says that the 'year of favor' has nothing to do with that interpretation and is a figure which represents the entire period of the development of Christianity down to the age he was living in. Irenaeus's position is stupid. Nevertheless what pulls the rug from under Clement and the other 'heretics' is that 'fifteenth of Tiberius' reference. Now of course it is in Stromata Book One. But was it there originally? Or was this yet another example of Eusebius (cf. Jerome's statement) correction of the Alexandrian masters to spare them from the charge of heresy. If it was so clear cut that Clement 'really' believed that the ministry of Jesus corresponded to the 'fifteenth of Tiberius' why do we see consistent 'scribal errors' whenever the topic comes up? Consider the most obvious, what appears in Book Seven: Quote:
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Just look at the context of what he is saying. He begins by quoting from his gospel (allegedly Luke) where Jesus himself says God sent me to proclaim the (single year) Jubilee. Then a reference to the agreement between Isaiah and the gospel. And then this strange back to 'in the fifteen years of Tiberius, in the fifteen years of Augustus' - so now not speaking of a single year but - like Irenaeus referencing a whole range of years - and now appearing to claim that Jesus died in 29 CE. If Clement was arguing for a Jubilee year he could only have meant 'fifteenth of Augustus.' |
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02-27-2013, 01:15 PM | #47 | |
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a) a messianic 'star' appeared in the sky b) the temple was built and which c) was a forty-ninth year/Jubilee with the birth of a child who was the messiah or the appearance of a messiah/supernatural figure? The Qumran texts make clear that the expectation that God or a supernatural being would come in the Jubilee already existed. My difficulty is squaring the gospel account with the anti-Temple subplot in the gospel and Acts. Which is more believable or - perhaps better - which is more likely to be original, the idea that Jesus was born on the Jubilee year that was the completion of the temple or that this was the year 'he appeared' (i.e. a supernatural being) who stood in front of Herod the Great and accused the Jews telling them they had sinned by going beyond what the Pentateuch allowed (i.e. building a permanent building as opposed to a mere flimsy tabernacle)? My difficulty is that the subplot that Herod wanted to see Jesus and that Jesus was preaching 'in a year of favor' and wanted the temple destroyed makes more sense in the fifteenth year of Augustus than the fifteenth year of Tiberius. Why would God have assigned a non-Jubilee year when the temple had long been standing to be 'the year of favor'? It doesn't make sense. The only defense is that 'Jesus was just a guy' and the rest of the idiocy that evangelicals spew. |
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02-27-2013, 01:21 PM | #48 |
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The bottom line for me at least is that there is this 'Herod the Great' subplot to the gospel and I could never explain why the Catholics introduced these fictions. If the original narrative (i.e. when Jesus was a man or in the likeness of a man) was originally set in the time of Herod the Great, it was set up as a ruse - i.e. to allow for Herod the Great to appear in the narrative but now entirely with respect to an infant Jesus.
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02-27-2013, 01:27 PM | #49 | |
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Having the narrative set in 12 BCE also helps explain why Jesus is never portrayed as entering Tiberias - one of the most unusual aspects of the gospel. Why wouldn't Jesus have visited the 'New York' of Galilee? The answer now - the city hadn't been built yet. Notice also John's later addition reference to the 'Tiberias' in chapter 6:
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02-27-2013, 01:53 PM | #50 | |
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Actually the avoidance of any reference to Tiberias is puzzling given Evans overview:
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I know it sounds nuts but I think the idea that the gospel was originally written for a period before the Common Era, before the city of Tiberias was founded, makes a lot of sense. There are all these anomalies that people just push back in their mind. |
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