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Old 11-02-2005, 11:12 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by CJD
That's fair. I didn't mean to come across cheeky.
You didn't. You point was valid.
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Old 11-02-2005, 11:19 AM   #12
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Originally Posted by CJD
Exactly. The punishment will be public, and it will be humiliating. That is, in essence, punishment, and that is, in sum, what many of the authors of the canon think is going to happen to their enemies.
I do not understand what you mean here? What's public?
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Every time the TNK or its Christian commentary mentions "being cut off" — either from the camp or the covenant — it literally and precisely means "separation from god."
Could you point to specific NT examples?
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But nowhere in the pertinent texts is Jesus deemed ontologically and numerically one with the Father. He is one with him in purpose and will (so Paul, etc.), and he is forsaken (i.e., cut off, separated) from YHWH (the father) when he is shown to be one who receives the curse of YHWH's covenant. This, according to the Christians, means absolutely nothing if YHWH did not vindicate this Jesus by raising him from the dead. rhutchin may be overly committed to a systematic (if not calvinistic) description of the events as they are described in the texts, but he is not "making it up."

CJD
Nobody has been been able to satisfactorily explain what the trinity is. It usually comes across as, "They are one but they are separate." YHWH's curse must be the curse of Jesus as well, right? If they are one in purpose and will?

You must understand that to an atheist your last paragraph sounds almost insane, certainly absurd. Not meant as a personal comment directed at you. I understand that rhutchin didn't make it up personally since I have heard the argument before. I have just never seen good biblical basis for it. It mostly comes across as apologetics.

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Old 11-02-2005, 11:55 AM   #13
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rhutchin
We read in the Bible that the wages of sin is death and that Christ was the atonement for the sins of the world. By death, the Bible means complete separation from God (e.g., as physical death separates a person from this physical life, so the death that is punishment for sin separates a person from God).

Julian
Except that separation from god would not be a punishment for someone who doesn't believe in him. Besides, your view is not backed up by the bible. It mentions hell but nothing about a separation from god.
Within the context of the Bible, hell is the opposite of heaven. In heaven, one would be in the presence of God; in hell one would be out of the presence of God. However, I agree that at least some of those who do not believe in God will prefer hell to heaven.

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rhutchin
The crucifixion, while terrible, would not have been the cause of Jesus' cry (within the context of the Bible). When Jesus cried out, it tells us that He has been completely separated from God and in this manner, is absorbing the punishment for the sins committed by people. It is on the bases of this act by Jesus (to absorb the punishment for sin) that God can then save those who had sinned against Him.

Julian
Er, Jesus is god. He cannot be separated from himself. Again, you are making this up. You have no biblical basis for this viewpoint.
It seems to be a major theme in the Bible. Sin entails punishment and this punishment is depicted as being cast into outer darkness as opposed to the light of God. The atonement for sin requires that someone incur this punishment, which is what Christ is said to have done. How this happened given that Christ is God seems to be a mystery.
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Old 11-02-2005, 12:18 PM   #14
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Originally Posted by rhutchin

The crucifixion, while terrible, would not have been the cause of Jesus' cry (within the context of the Bible). When Jesus cried out, it tells us that He has been completely separated from God and in this manner, is absorbing the punishment for the sins committed by people. It is on the bases of this act by Jesus (to absorb the punishment for sin) that God can then save those who had sinned against Him.
This is very confusing. How can Jesus be completely separated from god when you've already said many times that Jesus is god.

I suppose, since your god is all-powerful, then that god has the power to separate itself from itself. But, that's still is difficult for me to understand.

Please explain.
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Old 11-02-2005, 12:36 PM   #15
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rhutchin wrote:

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How this happened given that Christ is God seems to be a mystery.

In other words, it simply doesn't make sense. It continues to amaze me that even after a Christian publically admits something simply doesn't make sense, that they continue to claim to believe it. The fact that a human mind can be rendered so useless is a scary thing to behold - Christianity is indeed powerful.

-Equinox
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Old 11-02-2005, 12:50 PM   #16
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Originally Posted by Julian
I do not understand what you mean here? What's public?
The punishment. Consider Dan. 12:2; John 5:28–29; and Acts 24:15. All of these depict physical, bodily "coming to lifes" or "waking from sleep" (resurrections) in which those who persecuted the just will be publicly judged.


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Could you point to specific NT examples?
Many I think allude to it, but some that speak directly to the idea that being cut off/cast out is tantamount to being separated from YHWH: Matt. 22:13; 25:30; Luke 13:28; John 6:37; Rom. 9:3; 11:22; Gal. 4:30; Heb. 11:11–13

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Nobody has been been able to satisfactorily explain what the trinity is. It usually comes across as, "They are one but they are separate."
I think the texts push us in the direction that they are one, not as a numerical ens, but in agenda. This still doesn't answer those texts that highly exalt this Jesus (or depict people worshiping him), though. Either the early Jewish Christians were not monotheists, or they understood this Jesus to be somehow wrapped up in the identity of YHWH (aka, "Jesus is Lord"). That's about it. The rest is … :huh:

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YHWH's curse must be the curse of Jesus as well, right? If they are one in purpose and will?
Though Paul in particular (and even the gospels) is careful to note that sin and death are that which was condemned in Jesus, not Jesus himself. He takes on the curse, not deservedly, but willfully. In other words, it was always YHWH's purpose to deal with the problem Adam started (this is the whole point of the TNK); Jesus comes along and takes on this purpose and makes it his vocation, even to the point of being the object of his father's curse. This is where the "substitute" concept comes in. Jesus personally was not a covenant-breaker, but his fellow comrades were. He takes upon himself what the people as a whole earned (i.e., exile, being cut off). As mentioned previously, "My God, why have you forsaken me?", is an allusion to Ps. 22, and it is a lament that turns into a hopeful anticipation of the coming kingdom of YHWH. This guy Jesus understood his vocation as one with the father's purpose, which was, as various portions of the TNK show, that god's kingdom will come through the suffering of the righteous and that the true king will share in those sufferings. Thus, the option on how to view Jesus is not exactly either Lord or Lunatic; it is either Lord or Megalomaniac. He really thought, according to the text, that he was the true, representative king of Israel.

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You must understand that to an atheist your last paragraph sounds almost insane, certainly absurd. Not meant as a personal comment directed at you.
Of course. But I do think it is internally consistent.

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I understand that rhutchin didn't make it up personally since I have heard the argument before. I have just never seen good biblical basis for it. It mostly comes across as apologetics.
Well, it certainly is often presented in such a matter-of-fact way that I can understand the accusation of apologetics. What I wrote above explains it better, to me, at least.

CJD
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Old 11-02-2005, 12:55 PM   #17
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Originally Posted by Equinox
In other words, it simply doesn't make sense. It continues to amaze me that even after a Christian publically admits something simply doesn't make sense, that they continue to claim to believe it. The fact that a human mind can be rendered so useless is a scary thing to behold - Christianity is indeed powerful.
"Mystery" doesn't mean "it doesn't make sense." It means it's beyond human ability to fully comprehend. What continues to amaze me is the audacity skeptics like yourself display when discussing issues about reality, as if you and all your thoughts are understood by you exhaustively.

Hubris, pal, hubris is powerful.

CJD
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Old 11-02-2005, 01:12 PM   #18
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Originally Posted by Julian
One theory, that I happen to agree with, is that GMark is a separationist document. What this means is that Jesus was just a regular guy. You will notice that GMark has nothing about his birth in it. GMark starts at the baptism where the christ spirit enters him. After this happens, he can do all kinds of miraculous stuff. Then, finally, when he dies, the christ spirit leaves him, hence the "Why have you foprsaken me?"

The separationists argued that the man Jesus was separate from the the christ.

Julian
Julian, I recently came to this conclusion myself. However, I have never read any scholarship that discusses the question. The commentaries on Mark that I've looked in, for instance, completely fail to mention the possibility of a separationist/adoptionist christology. Can you point me to any references that discuss this?

Thanks!
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Old 11-02-2005, 01:53 PM   #19
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Originally Posted by CJD
"Mystery" doesn't mean "it doesn't make sense." It means it's beyond human ability to fully comprehend. What continues to amaze me is the audacity skeptics like yourself display when discussing issues about reality, as if you and all your thoughts are understood by you exhaustively.

Hubris, pal, hubris is powerful.

CJD
'Mystery' originally just meant 'secret'. The mystery religions were secret religions.

How a being that is fully God can be separated from God is a mystery in the modern sense of the word.

If Jesus felt seperated from God, why did he on the cross ask God to forgive people? More mysteries....
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Old 11-02-2005, 06:48 PM   #20
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13
They treat it as yet another example of a Gospel author using Hebrew Scripture to create his story. The phrase comes from one of the Psalms but I can't recall which one off hand. The Psalms were a popular source for the Gospel story "details".
Psalm 22, the corresponding Hebrew "Eli! Eli! Lamah azavtani?"
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