LSHAFC2004

Recently I have been speaking to an atheist. Whom made the statement regarding death and non-existence:

This is clearly wrong as firstly there is no time after death where the statement can exist and the part "will be no difference" is wrong. The statement should say "be no TELLING the difference" because even though I am non-exixtent and asleep, there is a lot of difference in living a full life a lying in a coffin, than never existing in space nor time. When we go asleep at night, because sometimes we cant remeber our lives or the day we have just lived, do we say, there is no difference in living the day and never living the day. No not at all, we cant TELL the difference. Are we agreed this atheists statement is wrong? :thumbs: :down:

Ovazor

No. The original quote did not say that there would be no difference, but that the author could not distinguish between having lived and never having lived, which is of course true because after death there wouldn't be anything to do the distinguishing.

LSHAFC2004

He says there will be NO DIFFERENCE between living and never living.
Secoundly at death time ceases, so there can be no time where distguishing can take place. Also if I had lived and been David Beckham in my life, there would be no difference,is being dead like David Beckham, No.

Death is like sleep,dreamless eternal sleep. Quiet peaceful really...... :snooze:

jastity

Why do I get the impression that this thread is about saying in a triumphant tone "Look, even the Internet Infidels say you are wrong!"

Ovazor

for me... there would be no difference, no distinguishing, between my having lived a life and my never having lived at all.

You keep ignoring the "for me", and "no distinguishing" parts.


Yes. That's why, after death, there's no difference for the dead because there's nothing to experience the difference.

In English, please.

Jakanapes

noooo, he actually says


Not no difference between LIVING and NEVER LIVING. No difference between HAVING LIVED and NEVER LIVED. Past tense. This is certainly true for the person who is dead.


To me, the original quote is equivalent to saying that there's no difference, to ME, between the time period before I was born (when I have never lived) and the time period after I am dead (I have lived). In both cases, I am completely non-existent.

Ovazor

That's how I read it, too.

LSHAFC2004

No people. In both cases we are asleep. There is no disgusihing between a dreamless sleep we had last night and non-existence before birth. Hence dreamless sleep is what awaits after death and what was before birth. If anyone is prepared to argue that for the subject who is in dreamless sleep or non-existent, there would be any difference, I am prepared to defend my postion for I know I am right. Death is a peaceful, eternal dreamless sleep.

Nanook

I will give it a try. Even in the deepest sleep there is still an element of consciousness. When the brain ceases to function all knowledge of existence ceases along with all memories of a life spent. I don't know this with 100 percent surety but I'm not ready to find out either.

Happy Wonderer

One is asleep before birth? How can something that doesn't exist be "asleep"?

hw